Latest update Amazon SOA-C01 exam dumps tips and practice tests

Lead4pass Amazon Certification

Table Of Content:

  1. Amazon SOA-C01 exam tips
  2. Amazon SOA-C01 exam details
  3. Amazon SOA-C01 Exam process
  4. Amazon SOA-C01 exam dumps (pdf + vce)
  5. Free sharing of Amazon SOA-C01 practice test questions
  6. Amazon SOA-C01 Coupon Code

Latest update Amazon SOA-C01 exam tips

How to get high exam returns! You need to study hard, take the exam, and then successfully pass the exam to get a good job! I am an Amazon AWS Certified Associate Exam Expert. Next, how to easily pass the exam, I will share with you! After passing the Amazon AWS Certified Associate certification exam,
You will easily find a job or increase high returns! Any exam is not easy! But my suggestion will help you increase the pass rate! Pass the exam successfully! Keep reading my article!

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Amazon SOA-C01 exam details

  • Vendor: Amazon
  • Exam Code: SOA-C01
  • Exam Name: AWS Certified SysOps Administrator – Associate (SOA-C01)
  • Certification: AWS Certified Associate
  • Total Questions: 914 Q&A
  • Exam Language: English
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Amazon SOA-C01 Exam process

aws-training

AWS Certification helps learners build credibility and confidence by validating their cloud expertise with an industry-recognized credential, and organizations identify skilled professionals to lead cloud initiatives using AWS.

Schedule and manage exams

View your certification history

Access your digital badges

Take a practice exam

View your certification benefits

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QUESTION 1
A user has launched an EC2 instance from an instance store backed by AMI. The infrastructure team wants to create an
AMI from the running instance. Which of the below-mentioned steps will not be performed while creating the AMI?
A. Define the AMI launch permissions
B. Upload the bundled volume
C. Register the AMI
D. Bundle the volume
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
When the user has launched an EC2 instance from an instance store backed AMI, it will need to follow
certain steps, such as “Bundling the root volume”, “Uploading the bundled volume” and “Register the AMI”.
Once the AMI is created the user can set up the launch permission. However, it is not required to set up
during the launch.

 

QUESTION 2
What is Amazon CloudFront?
A. A global Content Delivery Network
B. An encrypted endpoint to upload files to the Cloud
C. A web service to schedule regular data movement
D. A development front-end to Amazon Web Services
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Amazon CloudFront is a global content delivery network (CDN) service that accelerates delivery of your
websites, APIs, video content, or other web assets through CDN caching. It integrates with other Amazon
Web Services products to give developers and businesses an easy way to accelerate content to end-users
with no minimum usage commitments.
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/cloudfront/


QUESTION 3
A user has launched two EBS backed EC2 instances in the US-East-1a region. The user wants to change the zone of
one of the instances. How can the user change it?
A. Stop one of the instances and change the availability zone
B. The zone can only be modified using the AWS CLI
C. From the AWS EC2 console, select the Actions – > Change zones and specify the new zone
D. Create an AMI of the running instance and launch the instance in a separate AZ
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: With AWS EC2, when a user is launching an instance he can select the availability zone (AZ. at the time of
launch. If the zone is not selected, AWS selects it on behalf of the user. Once the instance is launched, the user cannot
change the zone of that instance unless he creates an AMI of that instance and launches a new instance from it.

 

QUESTION 4
EBS (Elastic Block Store) can be best described as:
A. persistent internet storage.
B. persistent block storage.
C. transient instance storage.
D. transient block storage.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) provides block-level (file system type) storage volumes for use
with Amazon EC2 instances. Amazon EBS volumes are highly available and reliable storage volumes that can be
attached to any running instance that is in the same Availability Zone. Amazon EBS volumes that are attached to an
Amazon EC2 instances are exposed as storage volumes that persist independently from the life of the instance.
Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/AmazonEBS.html

 

QUESTION 5
In IAM, a policy has to include information about who (user) is allowed to access the resource, known as the _____.
A. permission
B. role
C. license
D. principal
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: To specify resource-based permissions, you can attach a policy to the resource, such as an Amazon SNS
topic, an Amazon S3 bucket, or an Amazon Glacier vault. In that case, the policy has to include information about who
is allowed to access the resource, known as the principal. (For user-based policies, the principal is the IAM user that the
policy is attached to or the user who gets the policy from a group.) Reference:
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/IAM/latest/UserGuide/access_policies.html

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Latest update Amazon SCS-C01 exam dumps tips and practice tests

Lead4pass Amazon Certification

Table Of Content:

  1. Amazon SCS-C01 exam tips
  2. Amazon SCS-C01 exam details
  3. Amazon SCS-C01 Exam process
  4. Amazon SCS-C01 exam dumps (pdf + vce)
  5. Free sharing of Amazon SCS-C01 practice test questions
  6. Amazon SCS-C01 Coupon Code

Latest update Amazon SCS-C01 exam tips

How to get high exam returns! You need to study hard, take the exam, and then successfully pass the exam to get a good job!
I am an Amazon AWS Certified Specialty Exam Expert. Next, how to easily pass the exam, I will share with you! After passing the Amazon AWS Certified Specialty certification exam,
You will easily find a job or increase high returns! Any exam is not easy! But my suggestion will help you increase the pass rate! Pass the exam successfully! Keep reading my article!

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Amazon SCS-C01 exam details

  • Vendor: Amazon
  • Exam Code: SCS-C01
  • Exam Name: AWS Certified Security – Specialty (SCS-C01)
  • Certification: AWS Certified Specialty
  • Total Questions: 487 Q&A
  • Exam Language: English
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Amazon SCS-C01 Exam process

aws-training

AWS Certification helps learners build credibility and confidence by validating their cloud expertise with an industry-recognized credential, and organizations identify skilled professionals to lead cloud initiatives using AWS.

Schedule and manage exams

View your certification history

Access your digital badges

Take a practice exam

View your certification benefits

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Lead4Pass SCS-C01 exam dumps include two learning formats: PDF and VCE! Lead4Pass has been serving new and old customers for many years, and we have accumulated a good reputation!
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QUESTION 1
Which technique can be used to integrate AWS IAM (Identity and Access Management) with an on-premise LDAP
(Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) directory service?
Please select: A. Use an IAM policy that references the LDAP account identifiers and the AWS credentials.
B. Use SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) to enable single sign-on between AWS and LDAP.
C. Use AWS Security Token Service from an identity broker to issue short-lived AWS credentials.
D. Use IAM roles to automatically rotate the IAM credentials when LDAP credentials are updated.
Correct Answer: B
On the AWS Blog site, the following information is present to help in this context The newly released whitepaper. Single
Sign-On: Integrating AWS, OpenLDAP, and Shibboleth will help you integrate your existing LDAP-based user directory
with AWS. When you integrate your existing directory with AWS, your users can access AWS by using their existing
credentials. This means that your users don\\’t need to maintain yet another user name and password just to access
AWS resources. Option
A.C and D are all invalid because, in this sort of configuration, you have to use SAML to enable single sign-on.
For more information on integrating AWS with LDAP for Single Sign-On, please visit the following URL:
https://aws.amazon.eom/blogs/security/new-whitepaper-sinEle-sign-on-inteErating-aws-openldap-andshibboleth/
The correct answer is: Use SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) to enable single sign-on between
AWS and LDAP.

 

QUESTION 2
A company has set up the following structure to ensure that their S3 buckets always have logging enabledaws scs-c01 certification exam questions q2

If there are any changes to the configuration to an S3 bucket, a config rule gets checked. If logging is disabled, then
Lambda function is invoked. This Lambda function will again enable logging on the S3 bucket. Now there is an issue
being encountered with the entire flow. You have verified that the Lambda function is being invoked. But when logging is
disabled for the bucket, the lambda function does not enable it again. Which of the following could be an issue
Please select:
A. The AWS Config rule is not configured properly
B. The AWS Lambda function does not have appropriate permissions for the bucket
C. The AWS Lambda function should use Node.js instead of python.
D. You need to also use the API gateway to invoke the lambda function
Correct Answer: B
The most probable cause is that you have not allowed the Lambda functions to have the appropriate permissions on the
S3 bucket to make the relevant changes. Option A is invalid because this is more of permission instead of a
configuration rule issue. Option C is invalid because changing the language will not be the core solution. Option D is
invalid because you don\\’t necessarily need to use the API gateway service For more information on accessing
resources from a Lambda function, please refer to the below URL https://docs.aws.amazon.com/lambda/latest/ds/accessingresources.htmll The correct answer is: The AWS Lambda function does not have appropriate permissions for the
bucket

 

QUESTION 3
You need to ensure that objects in an S3 bucket are available in another region. This is because of the criticality of the
data that is hosted in the S3 bucket. How can you achieve this in the easiest way possible?
Please select:
A. Enable cross-region replication for the bucket
B. Write a script to copy the objects to another bucket in the destination region
C. Create an S3 snapshot in the destination region
D. Enable versioning which will copy the objects to the destination region
Correct Answer: A
Option B is partially correct but a big maintenance overhead to create and maintain a script when the functionality is
already available in S3 Option C is invalid because snapshots are not available in S3 Option D is invalid because
versioning will not replicate objects The AWS Documentation mentions the following Cross-region replication is a bucket level configuration that enables automatic, asynchronous copying of objects across buck in different AWS Regions. For
more information on Cross-region replication in the Simple Storage Service, please visit the below URL:
https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonS3/latest/dev/crr.html The correct answer is: Enable cross-region replication for
the bucket

 

QUESTION 4
In your LAMP application, you have some developers that say they would like access to your logs. However, since you
are using an AWS Auto Scaling group, your instances are constantly being re-created. What would you do to make sure
that these developers can access these log files? Choose the correct answer from the options below
Please select:
A. Give only the necessary access to the Apache servers so that the developers can gain access to the log files.
B. Give root access to your Apache servers to the developers.
C. Give read-only access to your developers to the Apache servers.
D. Set up a central logging server that you can use to archive your logs; archive these logs to an S3 bucket for
developer access.
Correct Answer: D
One important security aspect is to never give access to actual servers, hence Option A.B and C are just totally wrong
from a security perspective. The best option is to have a central logging server that can be used to archive logs. These
logs can then be stored in S3. Options A, B, and C are all invalid because you should not give access to the developers
on the Apache se For more information on S3, please refer to the below link https://aws.amazon.com/documentation/s3
The correct answer is: Set up a central logging server that you can use to archive your logs; archive these logs to an S3
bucket for developer access. Submit your Feedback/Queries to our Experts

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is not a best practice for carrying out a security audit?
Please select:
A. Conduct an audit on a yearly basis
B. Conduct an audit if application instances have been added to your account
C. Conduct an audit if you ever suspect that an unauthorized person might have accessed your account
D. Whenever there are changes in your organization
Correct Answer: A
A year\\’s time is generally too long a gap for conducting security audits The AWS Documentation mentions the
following You should audit your security configuration in the following situations: On a periodic basis. If there are
changes in your organization, such as people leaving. If you have stopped using one or more individual AWS services.
This is important for removing permissions that users in your account no longer need. If you\\’ve added or removed
software in your accounts, such as applications on Amazon EC2 instances, AWS OpsWor stacks, AWS CloudFormation
templates, etc. If you ever suspect that an unauthorized person might have accessed your account. Options B, C, and D
are all the right ways and recommended best practices when it comes to conducting audits For more information on
Security Audit guideline, please visit the below URL: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/eeneral/latest/gr/aws-security-auditeuide.html The correct answer is: Conduct an audit on a yearly basis

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I keep mentioning that Lead4Pass is an old store, which is our pride, we serve thousands of new and old customers! They prefer to use The Lead4Pass SCS-C01 exam dumps as it is by ours
Amazon exam experts design and long-term word-of-mouth cast results! Choosing Lead4Pass PDF and VCE (Practice Exam) will help you get the most out of your exam and help
You save more on learning practices and get the latest exam tips. Successfully passing the Amazon SCS-C01 exam will not only help you gain certification but will also help you stand out and achieve higher levels in your career
Return! Our SCS-C01 exam preparation materials are created by the latest exam question updates that are fed back in each practice exam! Amazon AWS Certified Specialty Certifications experts are available to update and change the latest exam questions and answers.

If the purchase of our products after the change, within 60 days of purchase to obtain a replacement of the product. Most importantly, if you first try to pass our study materials and fail the exam we will buy them for you
A full refund is available for the product. Our sole purpose is to help you pass the exam.

Latest update Amazon SAA-C02 exam dumps tips and practice tests

Lead4pass Amazon Certification

Table Of Content:

  1. Amazon SAA-C02 exam tips
  2. Amazon SAA-C02 exam details
  3. Amazon SAA-C02 Exam process
  4. Amazon SAA-C02 exam dumps (pdf + vce)
  5. Free sharing of Amazon SAA-C02 practice test questions
  6. Amazon SAA-C02 Coupon Code

Latest update Amazon SAA-C02 exam tips

How to get high exam returns! You need to study hard, take the exam, and then successfully pass the exam to get a good job! I am an Amazon AWS Certified Associate Exam Expert. Next, how to easily pass the exam, I will share with you! After passing the Amazon AWS Certified Associate certification exam,
You will easily find a job or increase high returns! Any exam is not easy! But my suggestion will help you increase the pass rate! Pass the exam successfully! Keep reading my article!

Lead4pass.com – This is my recommended website for the best successful Amazon AWS Certified Associate Certification Exam (exam code “SAA-C02”)! There are many people taking the Amazon AWS Certified Associate certification exam, But the success rate is very low! Many people need several times to succeed! This is a huge cash investment! In order to succeed in the first exam, I recommend using Lead4Pass SAA-C02 dumps.
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  • Vendor: Amazon
  • Exam Code: SAA-C02
  • Exam Name: AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate (SAA-C02)
  • Certification: AWS Certified Associate
  • Total Questions: 599 Q&A
  • Exam Language: English
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Amazon SAA-C02 Exam process

aws-training

AWS Certification helps learners build credibility and confidence by validating their cloud expertise with an industry-recognized credential, and organizations identify skilled professionals to lead cloud initiatives using AWS.

  1. Schedule and manage exams

2. View your certification history

3. Access your digital badges

4. Take a practice exam

5. View your certification benefits

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Lead4Pass SAA-C02 exam dumps include two learning formats: PDF and VCE! Lead4Pass has been serving new and old customers for many years, and we have accumulated a good reputation!
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Free sharing of Amazon SAA-C02 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
A company has a popular gaming platform running on AWS. The application is sensitive to latency because latency can
impact the user experience and introduce unfair advantages to some players The application is deployed in every AWS
Region it runs on Amazon EC2 instances that are part of Auto Scaling groups configured behind Application Load
Balancers (ALBs) A solutions architect needs to implement a mechanism to monitor the health of the application and
redirect traffic to healthy endpoints. Which solution meets these requirements?
A. Configure an accelerator in AWS Global Accelerator Add a listener for the port that the application listens on. and
attach it to a Regional endpoint in each Region Add the ALB as the endpoint
B. Create an Amazon CloudFront distribution and specify the ALB as the origin server. Configure the cache behavior to
use origin cache headers Use AWS Lambda functions to optimize the traffic
C. Create an Amazon CloudFront distribution and specify Amazon S3 as the origin server. Configure the cache behavior
to use origin cache headers. Use AWS Lambda functions to optimize the traffic
D. Configure an Amazon DynamoDB database to serve as the data store for the application Create a DynamoDB
Accelerator (DAX) cluster to act as the in-memory cache for DynamoDB hosting the application data.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
A company is hosting 60 TB of production-level data in an Amazon S3 bucket A solutions architect needs to bring that
data on premises for quarterly audit requirements This export of data must be encrypted while in transit The company
has low network bandwidth in place between AWS and its on-premises data center What should the solutions architect
do to meet these requirements9
A. Deploy AWS Migration Hub with 90-day replication windows for data transfer.
B. Deploy an AWS Storage Gateway volume gateway on AWS Enable a 90-day replication window to transfer the data
C. Deploy Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS), with lifecycle policies enabled, on AWS. Use it to transfer the
data
D. Deploy an AWS Snowball device in the on-premises data center after completing an export job request in the AWS
Snowball console
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
A company recently released a new type of internet-connected sensor. The company is expecting lo sell thousands of
sensors, which are designed to stream high volumes of data each second to a central location. A solutions architect
must design a solution that ingests and stores data so that engineering teams can analyze it in near-real time with
millisecond responsiveness. Which solution should the solutions architect recommend?
A. Use an Amazon SQS queue to ingest the data. Consume the data with an AWS Lambda function, which then stores
the data in Amazon Redshift.
B. Use an Amazon SOS queue to ingest the data. Consume the data with an AWS Lambda function, which then stores
the data in Amazon DynamoDB.
C. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Streams to ingest the data. Consume the data with an AWS Lambda function, which then
stores the data in Amazon Redshift.
D. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Streams to ingest the data. Consume the data with an AWS Lambda function, which then
stores the data in Amazon DynamoDB.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
An ecommerce company is running a multi-tier application on AWS. The front-end and backend tiers both run on
Amazon EC2. and the database runs on Amazon RDS for MySQL. The backend tier communicates with the RDS
instance. There are frequent calls to return identical datasets from the database that are causing performance
slowdowns.
Which action should be taken to improve the performance of the backend?
A. Implement Amazon SNS to store the database calls.
B. Implement Amazon ElastiCache to cache the large datasets.
C. Implement an RDS for MySQL read replica to cache database calls.
D. Implement Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to stream the calls to the database.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
A recent analysis of a company\\’s IT expenses highlights the need to reduce backup costs. The company\\’s chief
information officer wants to simplify the on-premises backup infrastructure and reduce costs by eliminating the use of
physical backup tapes. The company must preserve the existing investment in the on-premises backup applications and
workflows. What should a solutions architect recommend?
A. Set up AWS Storage Gateway to connect with the backup applications using the NFS interface.
B. Set up an Amazon EFS file system that connects with the backup applications using the NFS interface
C. Set up an Amazon EFS file system that connects with the backup applications using the iSCSI interface
D. Set up AWS Storage Gateway to connect with the backup applications using the iSCSI-virtual tape library (VTL)
interface.
Correct Answer: D

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  3. Amazon MLS-C01 Exam process
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  5. Free sharing of Amazon MLS-C01 practice test questions
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Exam Code: MLS-C01
Exam Name: AWS Certified Machine Learning – Specialty (MLS-C01)
Certification: AWS Certified Specialty
Total Questions: 160 Q&A
Exam Language: English

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AWS Certification helps learners build credibility and confidence by validating their cloud expertise with an industry-recognized credential, and organizations identify skilled professionals to lead cloud initiatives using AWS.

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QUESTION 1
A Machine Learning Specialist working for an online fashion company wants to build a data ingestion solution for the
company\\’s Amazon S3-based data lake.
The Specialist wants to create a set of ingestion mechanisms that will enable future capabilities comprised of:
1.
Real-time analytics
2.
Interactive analytics of historical data
3.
Clickstream analytics
4.
Product recommendations
Which services should the Specialist use?
A. AWS Glue as the data dialog; Amazon Kinesis Data Streams and Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics for real-time data
insights; Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose for delivery to Amazon ES for clickstream analytics; Amazon EMR to generate
personalized product recommendations
B. Amazon Athena as the data catalog; Amazon Kinesis Data Streams and Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics for near real-time data insights; Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose for clickstream analytics; AWS Glue to generate personalized
product recommendations
C. AWS Glue as the data catalog; Amazon Kinesis Data Streams and Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics for historical data
insights; Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose for delivery to Amazon ES for clickstream analytics; Amazon EMR to generate
personalized product recommendations
D. Amazon Athena as the data catalog; Amazon Kinesis Data Streams and Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics for historical
data insights; Amazon DynamoDB streams for clickstream analytics; AWS Glue to generate personalized product
recommendations
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
When submitting Amazon SageMaker training jobs using one of the built-in algorithms, which common parameters
MUST be specified? (Select THREE.)
A. The training channel identifying the location of training data on an Amazon S3 bucket.
B. The validation channel identifying the location of validation data on an Amazon S3 bucket.
C. The 1 AM role that Amazon SageMaker can assume to perform tasks on behalf of the users.
D. Hyperparameters in a JSON array as documented for the algorithm used.
E. The Amazon EC2 instance class specifying whether training will be run using CPU or GPU.
F. The output path specifying where on an Amazon S3 bucket the trained model will persist.
Correct Answer: AEF

 

QUESTION 3
A company that promotes healthy sleep patterns by providing cloud-connected devices currently hosts a sleep tracking
application on AWS. The application collects device usage information from device users. The company\\’s Data
The science team is building a machine learning model to predict if and when a user will stop utilizing the company\\’s
devices. Predictions from this model are used by a downstream application that determines the best approach for
contacting users.
The Data Science team is building multiple versions of the machine learning model to evaluate each version against the
company\\’s business goals. To measure long-term effectiveness, the team wants to run multiple versions of the model
in parallel for long periods of time, with the ability to control the portion of inferences served by the models.
Which solution satisfies these requirements with MINIMAL effort?
A. Build and host multiple models in Amazon SageMaker. Create multiple Amazon SageMaker endpoints, one for each
model. Programmatically control invoking different models for inference at the application layer.
B. Build and host multiple models in Amazon SageMaker. Create an Amazon SageMaker endpoint configuration with
multiple product variants. Programmatically control the portion of the inferences served by the multiple models by
updating the endpoint configuration.
C. Build and host multiple models in Amazon SageMaker Neo to take into account different types of medical devices.
Programmatically control which model is invoked for inference based on the medical device type.
D. Build and host multiple models in Amazon SageMaker. Create a single endpoint that accesses multiple models. Use
Amazon SageMaker batch transforms to control invoking the different models through the single endpoint.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
A Machine Learning Specialist is working for a credit card processing company and receives an unbalanced dataset
containing credit card transactions. It contains 99,000 valid transactions and 1,000 fraudulent transactions The
A specialist is asked to score a model that was run against the dataset The Specialist has been advised that identifying
valid transactions are equally as important as identifying fraudulent transactions What metric is BEST suited to score the
model?
A. Precision
B. Recall
C. Area Under the ROC Curve (AUC)
D. Root Mean Square Error (RMSE)
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
A machine learning specialist works for a fruit processing company and needs to build a system that categorizes apples
into three types. The specialist has collected a dataset that contains 150 images for each type of apple and applied
transfer learning on a neural network that was trained on ImageNet with this dataset.
The company requires at least 85% accuracy to make use of the model.
After an exhaustive grid search, the optimal hyperparameters produced the following:
1.
68% accuracy on the training set
2.
67% accuracy on the validation set
What can the machine learning specialist do to improve the system\\’s accuracy?
A. Upload the model to an Amazon SageMaker notebook instance and use the Amazon SageMaker HPO feature to
optimize the model\\’s hyperparameters.
B. add more data to the training set and retrain the model using transfer learning to reduce the bias.
C. Use a neural network model with more layers that are pre-trained on ImageNet and apply transfer learning to increase
the variance.
D. Train a new model using the current neural network architecture.
Correct Answer: B

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Return! Our MLS-C01 exam preparation materials are created by the latest exam question updates that are fed back in each practice exam! Amazon AWS Certified Specialty Certifications experts are available to update and change the latest exam questions and answers.

If the purchase of our products after the change, within 60 days of purchase to obtain a replacement of the product. Most importantly, if you first try to pass our study materials and fail the exam we will buy it for you
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  1. Amazon DVA-C01 exam tips
  2. Amazon DVA-C01 exam details
  3. Amazon DVA-C01 Exam process
  4. Amazon DVA-C01 exam dumps (pdf + vce)
  5. Free sharing of Amazon DVA-C01 practice test questions
  6. Amazon DVA-C01 Coupon Code

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  • Vendor: Amazon
  • Exam Code: DVA-C01
  • Exam Name: AWS Certified Developer – Associate (DVA-C01)
  • Certification: AWS Certified Associate
  • Total Questions: 436 Q&A
  • Exam Language: English
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AWS Certification helps learners build credibility and confidence by validating their cloud expertise with an industry-recognized credential, and organizations identify skilled professionals to lead cloud initiatives using AWS.

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2. View your certification history

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QUESTION 1
What does an Amazon SQS delay queue accomplish?
A. Messages are hidden for a configurable amount of time when they are first added to the queue.
B. Messages are hidden for a configurable amount of time after they are consumed from the queue.
C. The consumer can poll the queue for a configurable amount of time before retrieving a message.
D. Message cannot be deleted for a configurable amount of time after they are consumed from the queue.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSSimpleQueueService/latest/SQSDeveloperGuide/sqsdelayqueues.html

 

QUESTION 2
An application displays a status dashboard. The status is updated by 1 KB messages from an SQS queue.
Although the status changes infrequently, the Developer must minimize the time between the message
arrives in the queue and the dashboard update.
What technique provides the shortest delay in updating the dashboard?
A. Retrieve the messages from the queue using long polling every 20 seconds.
B. Reduce the size of the messages by compressing them before sending.
C. Retrieve the messages from the queue using short polling every 10 seconds.
D. Reduce the size of each message payload by sending it in two parts.
Correct Answer: A
https://docs.aws.amazon.com/ko_kr/AWSSimpleQueueService/latest/SQSDeveloperGuide/sqs-short-andlongpolling.html#sqs-short-long-polling-differences

 

QUESTION 3
What is required to trace Lambda-based applications with AWS X-Ray?
A. Send logs from the Lambda application to an S3 bucket; trigger a Lambda function from the bucket to send data to
AWS X-Ray.
B. Trigger a Lambda function from the application logs in Amazon CloudWatch to submit tracing data to AWS X-Ray.
C. Use an IAM execution role to give the Lambda function permissions and enable tracing.
D. Update and add AWS X-Ray daemon code to relevant parts of the Lambda function to set up the trace.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/lambda/latest/dg/services-xray.html

 

QUESTION 4
A Developer is making changes to a custom application that is currently using AWS Elastic Beanstalk.
After the Developer completes the changes, what solutions will update the Elastic Beanstalk environment with the new
application version? (Choose two.)
A. Package the application code into a .zip file, and upload, then deploy the packaged application from the AWS
Management Console
B. Package the application code into a .tar file, create a new application version from the AWS Management Console,
then update the environment by using AWS CLI
C. Package the application code into a .tar file, and upload and deploy the packaged application from the AWS
Management Console
D. Package the application code into a .zip file, create a new application version from the packaged application by using
AWS CLI, then update the environment by using AWS CLI
E. Package the application code into a .zip file, create a new application version from the AWS Management Console,
then rebuild the environment by using AWS CLI
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 5
A developer is building an AWS Lambda function that will dynamically generate and send a weekly newsletter to
100.000 users This newsletter contains both static text and images The developer needs a fast and highly scalable
a place to store the images that will be hyperlinked in the newsletter Where should the developer store these images?
A. Use an Amazon DynamoDB table with DynamoDB Streams and read capacity autoscaling enabled
B. Use an Amazon S3 bucket and S3 Transfer Acceleration to speed up the image download
C. Use an Amazon Aurora database with a public DNS endpoint and auto-scaling enabled
D. Use an Amazon S3 backed Amazon CloudFront distribution with a high Time-to-Live (TTL) to maximize caching
Correct Answer: D

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  2. Amazon DOP-C01 exam details
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  4. Amazon DOP-C01 exam dumps (pdf + vce)
  5. Free sharing of Amazon DOP-C01 practice test questions
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  • Exam Code: DOP-C01
  • Exam Name: AWS Certified DevOps Engineer – Professional (DOP-C01)
  • Certification: AWS Certified Professional
  • Total Questions: 449 Q&A
  • Exam Language: English
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AWS Certification helps learners build credibility and confidence by validating their cloud expertise with an industry-recognized credential, and organizations identify skilled professionals to lead cloud initiatives using AWS.

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1.View your certification history

2.Access your digital badges

3.Take a practice exam

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QUESTION 1
What is required to achieve gigabit network throughput on EC2? You already selected cluster-compute, 10GB instances
with enhanced networking, and your workload is already network-bound, but you are not seeing 10-gigabit speeds.
A. Enable biplex networking on your servers, so packets are non-blocking in both directions and there\\’s no switching
overhead.
B. Ensure the instances are in different VPCs so you don\\’t saturate the Internet Gateway on any one VPC.
C. Select PIOPS for your drives and mount several, so you can provision sufficient disk throughput.
D. Use a placement group for your instances so the instances are physically near each other in the same Availability
Zone.
Correct Answer: D
You are not guaranteed 10gigabit performance, except within a placement group. A placement group is a logical
grouping of instances within a single Availability Zone. Using placement groups enables applications to participate in a
low-latency, 10 Gbps network. Placement groups are recommended for applications that benefit from low network
latency, high network throughput, or both. Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/placement-groups.html

 

QUESTION 2
What is the maximum supported single-volume throughput on EBS?
A. 320MiB/s
B. 160MiB/s
C. 40MiB/s
D. 640MiB/s
Correct Answer: A
The ceiling throughput for PIOPS on EBS is 320MiB/s.
Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/EBSVolumeTypes.html

 

QUESTION 3
A developer tested an application locally and then deployed it to AWS Lambda. While testing the application remotely,
the Lambda function fails with an access denied message.
How can this issue be addressed?
A. Update the Lambda function\\’s execution role to include the missing permissions.
B. Update the Lambda function\\’s resource policy to include the missing permissions.
C. Include an IAM policy document at the root of the deployment package and redeploy the Lambda function.
D. Redeploy the Lambda function using an account with access to the AdministratorAccess policy.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/premiumsupport/knowledge-center/access-denied-lambda-s3-bucket/

 

QUESTION 4
A large enterprise is deploying a web application on AWS. The application runs on Amazon EC2 instances behind an
Application Load Balancer. The instances run in an Auto Scaling group across multiple Availability Zones. The
application stores data in an Amazon RDS Oracle DB instance and Amazon DynamoDB. There are separate
environments for development, testing, and production. What is the MOST secure and flexible way to obtain password
credentials during deployment?
A. Retrieve an access key from an AWS Systems Manager SecureString parameter to access AWS services. Retrieve
the database credentials from a Systems Manager SecureString parameter.
B. Launch the EC2 instances with an EC2 IAM role to access AWS services. Retrieve the database credentials from
AWS Secrets Manager.
C. Retrieve an access key from an AWS Systems Manager plaintext parameter to access AWS services. Retrieve the
database credentials from a Systems Manager SecureString parameter.
D. Launch the EC2 instances with an EC2 IAM role to access AWS services. Store the database passwords in an
encrypted config file with the application artifacts.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
A company using AWS CodeCommit for source control wants to automate its continuous integration and continuous
deployment pipeline on AWS in its development environment. The company has three requirements:
1.
There must be a legal and a security review of any code change to make sure sensitive information is not leaked
through the source code.
2.
Every change must go through unit testing.
3.
Every change must go through a suite of functional testing to ensure functionality. In addition, the company has the
following requirements for automation:
1.
Code changes should automatically trigger the CI/CD pipeline.
2.
Any failure in the pipeline should notify [email protected]
3.
There must be approved to stage the assets to Amazon S3 after tests have been performed.
What should a DevOps Engineer do to meet all of these requirements while following CI/CD best practices?
A. Commit to the development branch and trigger AWS CodePipeline from the development branch.
Make an individual stage in CodePipeline for security review, unit tests, functional tests, and manual approval. Use
Amazon CloudWatch metrics to detect changes in pipeline stages and Amazon SES for emailing [email protected]
B. Commit to mainline and trigger AWS CodePipeline from mainline. Make an individual stage in CodePipeline for
security review, unit tests, functional tests, and manual approval. Use AWS CloudTrail logs to detect changes in pipeline
stages and Amazon SNS for emailing [email protected]
C. Commit to the development branch and trigger AWS CodePipeline from the development branch. Make an individual
stage in CodePipeline for security review, unit tests, functional tests, and manual approval. Use Amazon CloudWatch
Events to detect changes in pipeline stages and Amazon SNS for emailing [email protected]
D. Commit to mainline and trigger AWS CodePipeline from mainline. Make an individual stage in CodePipeline for
security review, unit tests, functional tests, and manual approval. Use Amazon CloudWatch Events to detect changes in
pipeline stages and Amazon SES for emailing [email protected]
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true regarding constraints? (Choose two)
A. A constraint is enforced only for an INSERT operation on a table.
B. A foreign key cannot contain NULL values.
C. A column with the UNIQUE constraint can store NULLS.
D. You can have more than one column in a table as part of a primary key.
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true regarding the default behavior of the ORDER BY clause?
A. In a character sort, the values are case-sensitive.
B. NULL values are not considered at all by the sort operation.
C. Only those columns that are specified in the SELECT list can be used in the ORDER BY clause.
D. Numeric values are displayed from the maximum to the minimum value if they have decimal positions.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which two are SQL features? (Choose two.)
A. processing sets of data
B. providing update capabilities for data in external files
C. providing graphical capabilities
D. providing variable definition capabilities
E. providing database transaction control
Correct Answer: AE
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/TGSQL/tgsql_sqlproc.htm#TGSQL175
https://www.tutorialspoint.com/sql/sql-transactions.htm

 

QUESTION 4
Evaluate the following CREATE SEQUENCE statement: CREATE SEQUENCE seq1
START WITH 100 INCREMENT BY 10 MAXVALUE 200 CYCLE NOCACHE;
The sequence SEQ1 has generated numbers up to the maximum limit of 200. You issue the following SQL statement:
SELECT seq1.nextval FROM dual;
What is displayed by the SELECT statement?
A. 100
B. an error
C. 10
D. 1
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
View the exhibits and examine the structures of the COSTS and PROMOTIONS tables.[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-071 exam questions q5

Evaluate the following SQL statement:

[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-071 exam questions q5-1

What would be the outcome of the above SQL statement?
A. It displays prod IDs in the promo with the lowest cost.
B. It displays prod IDs in the promos with the lowest cost in the same time interval.
C. It displays prod IDs in the promos with the highest cost in the same time interval.
D. It displays prod IDs in the promos which cost less than the highest cost in the same time interval.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true regarding multiple-row subqueries? (Choose two.)
A. They can contain group functions.
B. They always contain a subquery within a subquery.
C. They use the
D. They can be used to retrieve multiple rows from a single table only.
E. They should not be used with the NOT IN operator in the main query if NULL is likely to be a part of the result of the
subquery.
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true about INTERVAL data types?
A. The YEAR field in an INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH column must be a positive value.
B. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND columns support fractions of seconds.
C. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns only support monthly intervals within a single year.
D. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns supports yearly intervals.
E. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns only support monthly intervals within a range of years.
F. The value in an INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND column can be copied into an INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH column.
Correct Answer: BE
Reference: https://www.oracletutorial.com/oracle-basics/oracle-interval/

 

QUESTION 8
View the exhibit and examine the structures of the EMPLOYEES and DEPARTMENTS tables.[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-071 exam questions q8

You want to update the EMPLOYEES table as follows:
Update only those employees who work in Boston or Seattle (locations 2900 and 2700).
Set department_id for these employees to the department_id corresponding to London (location_id 2100).
Set the employees\\’ salary in location_id 2100 to 1.1 times the average salary of their department.
Set the employees\\’ commission in location_id 2100 to 1.5 times the average commission of their department.
You issue the following command:

[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-071 exam questions q8-1

What is the outcome?
A. It generates an error because multiple columns (SALARY, COMMISSION) cannot be specified together in an
UPDATE statement.
B. It generates an error because a subquery cannot have a join condition in an UPDATE statement.
C. It executes successfully and gives the desired update
D. It executes successfully but does not give the desired update
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Examine the description of the EMPLOYEES table:[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-071 exam questions q9

Examine this query:

[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-071 exam questions q9-1

Which line produces an error?
A. Line 5
B. Line 8
C. Line 7
D. Line 3
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
The PRODUCTS table has the following structure.[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-071 exam questions q10

Evaluate the following two SQL statements:
SQL>SELECT prod_id, NVL2 (prod_expiry_date, prod_expiry_date + 15, ` `) FROM products;
SQL>SELECT prod_id, NVL (prod_expiry_date, prod_expiry_date + 15) FROM products;
Which statement is true regarding the outcome?
A. Both the statements execute and give different results
B. Only the second SQL statement executes successfully
C. Both the statements execute and give the same result
D. Only the first SQL statement executes successfully
Correct Answer: A
Using the NVL2 Function The NVL2 function examines the first expression. If the first expression is not null, the NVL2 function returns the second expression. If the first expression is null, the third expression is returned. Syntax
NVL2(expr1, expr2, expr3) In the syntax: Expr1 is the source value or expression that may contain a null Expr2 is the value that is returned if expr1 is not null Expr3 is the value that is returned if expr1 is null

 

QUESTION 11
View the Exhibits and examine the structure of the COSTS and PROMOTIONS tables.
You want to display PROD_IDS whose promotion cost is less than the highest cost PROD_ID in a promotion time
interval.
Examine these SQL statements: What will be the result? Exhibit 1.[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-071 exam questions q11

Exhibit 2.

[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-071 exam questions q11-1

A. It gives an error because the GROUP BY clause is not valid
B. It executes successfully but does not give the required result
C. It executes successfully and gives the required result
D. It gives an error because the ALL keyword is not valid
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Examine the description of the PRODUCT_STATUS table:[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-071 exam questions q12

The STATUS column contains the values `IN STOCK\\’ or `OUT OF STOCK\\’ for each row. Which two queries will
execute successfully?

[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-071 exam questions q12-1

A. B. C. D. E. F.
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 13
Examine the structure of the BOOKS_TRANSACTIONS table:[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-071 exam questions q13

You want to display the member IDs, due date, and late fee as $2 for all transactions. Which SQL statement must you
execute?
A. SELECT member_id AS MEMBER_ID, due_date AS DUE_DATE, $2 AS LATE_FEE FROM
BOOKS_TRANSACTIONS;
B. SELECT member_id \\’MEMBER ID\\’, due_date \\’DUE DATE\\’, \\’$2 AS LATE FEE\\’ FROM
BOOKS_TRANSACTIONS;
C. SELECT member_id AS “MEMBER ID”, due_date AS “DUE DATE”, \\’$2\\’ AS “LATE FEE” FROM
BOOKS_TRANSACTIONS;
D. SELECT member_id AS “MEMBER ID”, due_date AS “DUE DATE”, $2 AS “LATE FEE” FROM
BOOKS_TRANSACTIONS;
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which two files must you copy from the Oracle home of the database that is being upgraded to the new Oracle home for
Oracle Database 12c? (Choose three.)
A. the tnsnames.ora file
B. the sqlnet.ora file
C. the initialization parameter file
D. the password file
E. the listener.ora file
Correct Answer: ABE
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e23633/afterup.htm#UPGRD52747

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about Enterprise Manager (EM) express in Oracle Database 12c?
A. By default, EM express is available for a database after database creation.
B. You can use EM express to manage multiple databases running on the same server.
C. You can perform basic administrative tasks for pluggable databases by using the EM express interface.
D. You cannot start-up or shut down a database Instance by using EM express.
E. You can create and configure pluggable databases by using EM express.
Correct Answer: D
References: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/manageability/emx-intro-1965965.html

 

QUESTION 3
Which four statements are true about the components of the Oracle Scheduler? (Choose four.)
A. A schedule can be specified for a single job only.
B. A scheduler job can point to a chain instead of pointing to a single program object.
C. A job may get started automatically when a window opens.
D. A program and job can be specified as part of a schedule definition.
E. A job is specified as part of a program specification.
F. A program can be used in the definition of multiple jobs.
G. A program and schedule can be specified as part of a job definition.
Correct Answer: BCFG
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14231/schedover.htm

 

QUESTION 4
Identify three scenarios in which you would recommend the use of SQL Performance Analyzer to analyze the impact on the
performance of SQL statements.
A. Change in the Oracle Database version
B. Change in your network infrastructure
C. Change in the hardware configuration of the database server
D. Migration of database storage from non-ASM to ASM storage
E. Database and operating system upgrade
Correct Answer: ACE
Oracle 11g/12c makes further use of SQL tuning sets with the SQL Performance Analyzer, which compares the
performance of the statements in a tuning set before and after a database change. The database change can be as
major or minor as you like, such as:
*
(E) Database, operating system, or hardware upgrades.
*
(A, C) Database, operating system, or hardware configuration changes.
*
Database initialization parameter changes.
*
Schema changes, such as adding indexes or materialized views.
*
Refreshing optimizer statistics.
*
Creating or changing SQL profiles.


QUESTION 5
You configured the Fast Recovery Area (FRA) for your database. The database instance is in ARCHIVELOG mode. The
default location for the archived redo log files is the FRA.
Which two files are removed automatically if space is required in the FRA as per the retention policy? (Choose two.)
A. Archived redo log files that have multiple copies in a different archive location
B. user-managed backups of data files and control files
C. RMAN backups that are obsolete
D. flashback logs
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 6
Examine the details of the Top 5 Timed Events in the following Automatic Workloads Repository (AWR) report:[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-062 exam questions q6

What are three possible causes for the latch-related wait events?
A. The size of the shared pool is too small.
B. Cursors are not being shared.
C. A large number of COMMITS is being performed.
D. There is frequent logons and logoffs.
E. The buffers are being read into the buffer cache, but some other session is changing the buffers.
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 7
You Execute the Following command to create a password file in the database server:
$ orapwd file = `+DATA/PROD/orapwprod entries = 5 ignorecase = N format = 12\\’
Which two statements are true about the password file? (Choose two.)
A. It records the usernames and passwords of users when granted the DBA role.
B. It contains the usernames and passwords of users for whom auditing is enabled.
C. Is used by Oracle to authenticate users for remote database administration.
D. It records the usernames and passwords of all users when they are added to the OSDBA or OSOPER operating
system groups.
E. It supports the SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM system privileges.
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 8
The user SCOTT owns the CUST table that is placed in the SALES tablespace. The user SCOTT opens a session and
executes commands as follows:
SQL> INSERT INTO cust VALUES(101, \\’JACK\\’);
1 row created.
SQL> INSERT INTO cust VALUES(102, \\’SMITH\\’);
1 row created.
As a DBA, you execute the following command from another session:
ALTER TABLESPACE sales READ ONLY;
Which statement is true regarding the effect of this command on the transaction in Scott\\’s session?
A. The command fails as a transaction is still pending.
B. The transaction in Scott\\’s session is rolled back and the tablespace becomes read-only.
C. The command waits and the user SCOTT can execute data manipulation language (DML) statements only as part of
the current transaction.
D. The command hangs until all transactions on the objects in the tablespace commit or rollback, and then the
a tablespace is placed in read-only mode.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
You want to distribute a set of structured data to your customers who can integrate this data into their existing
databases irrespective of the platform.
Which method provides the fastest way of achieving this?
A. using the DBVERIFY utility
B. using direct-path INSERT SQL statements
C. using SQL*Loader
D. using RMAN transportable tablespace operation
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
You are planning the creation of a new multitenant container database (CDB) and want to store the ROOT and SEED
container data files in separate directories.
You plan to create the database using SQL statements.
Which three techniques can you use to achieve this? (Choose three.)
A. Use Oracle Managed Files (OMF).
B. Specify the SEED FILE_NAME_CONVERT clause.
C. Specify the PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT initialization parameter.
D. Specify the DB_FILE_NAMECONVERT initialization parameter.
E. Specify all files in the CREATE DATABASE statement without using Oracle managed Files (OMF).
Correct Answer: ABC
You must specify the names and locations of the seed\\’s files in one of the following ways:
*
(A) Oracle Managed Files
*
(B) The SEED FILE_NAME_CONVERT Clause
*
(C) The PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT Initialization Parameter

 

QUESTION 11
In which three situations can you use threshold server-generated alerts to help diagnose and fix problems? (Choose
three.)
A. when free space in a locally managed tablespace falls below a specified percentage
B. when the number of logons per second exceeds a specific value
C. when a resumable statement is suspended
D. when the total number of locked user account exceeds a specific value
E. when the total number of logons exceeds a specific value
F. when free space in a dictionary managed tablespace falls below a specified percentage
Correct Answer: ABC
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/monitoring001.htm
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/schema001.htm

 

QUESTION 12
In your production database, data manipulation language (DML) operations are executed on the SALES table.
You have noticed some dubious values in the SALES table during the last few days. You are able to track users, actions
taken, and the time of the action for this particular period but the changes in data are not tracked. You decide to keep
track of both the old data and new data in the table long with the user information.
What action would you take to achieve this task?
A. Apply fine-grained auditing.
B. Implement value-based auditing.
C. Impose standard database auditing to audit object privileges.
D. Impose standard database auditing to audit SQL statements.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Your multitenant container (CDB) containing three pluggable databases (PDBs) is running in ARCHIVELOG mode. You
find that the SYSAUX tablespace is corrupted in the root container.
The steps to recover the tablespace are as follows:
1.
Mount the CDB.
2.
Close all the PDBs.
3.
Open the database.
4.
Apply the archive redo logs.
5.
Restore the data file.
6.
Take the SYSAUX tablespace offline.
7.
Place the SYSAUX tablespace online.
8.
Open all the PDBs with RESETLOGS.
9.
Open the database with RESETLOGS.
10.
Execute the command SHUTDOWN ABORT.
Which option identifies the correct sequence to recover the SYSAUX tablespace?
A. 6, 5, 4, 7
B. 10, 1, 2, 5, 8
C. 10, 1, 2, 5, 4, 9, 8
D. 10, 1, 5, 8, 10
Correct Answer: A
RMAN> ALTER TABLESPACE sysaux OFFLINE IMMEDIATE;
RMAN> RESTORE TABLESPACE sysaux;
RMAN> RECOVER TABLESPACE sysaux;
RMAN> ALTER TABLESPACE sysaux ONLINE;
*
Example:
While evaluating the 12c beta3 I was not able to do the recover while testing “all PDB files lost”.
Cannot close the PDB as the system datafile was missing…
So the only option to recover was:
Shutdown cdb (10)
startup mount; (1)
restore pluggable database
recover pluggable database
alter database open;
alter pluggable database name open;
Oracle support says: You should be able to close the PDB and restore/recover the system tablespace of PDB.
*
Inconsistent backups are usually created by taking online database backups. You can also make an inconsistent
backup by backing up data files while a database is closed, either:
/ Immediately after the crash of an Oracle instance (or, in an Oracle RAC configuration, all instances)
/ After shutting down the database using SHUTDOWN ABORT
Inconsistent backups are only useful if the database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and all archived redo logs created since
the backup is available.
*
Open the database with the RESETLOGS option after finishing recovery: SQL> ALTER DATABASE OPEN
RESETLOGS;

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QUESTION 1
A customer has a requirement for a new solution to handle their growing storage requirements. The solution should
have the ability to cover storage needs for the next three years. The environment consists of 100 TBs of file system data
spread across five file systems. On average, the file systems grow 1 TB a month. In addition, they have a large VMware
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The customer wants the solution to offer good performance, scalability, manageability, and be cost-effective. The sales
team is looking to you to recommend a solution.
Which recommendation will meet the customer\\’s requirements?
A. VNX for DB and VMware workloads, and Isilon for file system data
B. Isilon scale-out and cluster as required
C. VNX Unified platform with FAST Cache
D. VMAX with FAST VP and a NAS Gateway
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
You have 1000 users for an application that reads and writes files averaging between one and four MB in size. Each
user requires 24 MB of RAM. You want to add another 1000 users for this application, and in preparation for them, you
run the isi statistics command. You discover that the average CPU utilization is 20%; aggregate throughput averages
700 MB/s and the disk QueueD average is 1.5. Your cluster currently has five X200 (12 GB RAM, 1 TB drive) nodes,
uses N +2:1 protection and 1 GigE networking.
What should you do to accommodate the next 1000 users?
A. Add five additional X200 (12 GB, 1 TB drive) nodes
B. Upgrade each X200 node to a total of 24 GB of RAM.
C. Upgrade two of the 1 GigE NICs to 10 GigE on each node.
D. Add five A100 (24 GB RAM) accelerator nodes.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
When creating a FilePool policy via the OneFS WebUI, what is the maximum allowed number of condition blocks?
B. 3
C. 8
D. No limit
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
A customer is considering the use of RBAC to centrally administer user accounts that can log into multiple Isilon
clusters. What is a potential capability for the customer?
A. Assign users only custom roles with privileges to perform specific administrative tasks
B. Assign individual privileges for specific administrative tasks directly to user accounts
C. Assign users built-in or custom roles with privileges to perform specific administrative tasks
D. Assign users only built-in roles with privileges to perform specific administrative tasks
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
When designing a SmartConnect IP pool, what is the recommended IP address pool allocation method and protocol
state for SMB?
A. Dynamic, stateful
B. Static, stateless
C. Dynamic, stateless
D. Static, stateful
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.dellemc.com/resources/en-us/asset/white-papers/products/storage/h16463-isilon-advancednetworking-fundamentals.pdf

 

QUESTION 6
On an Isilon cluster, how much space should be reserved for snapshots by default?
A. 0%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
A cost-conscious customer is exploring Isilon for their PACS archive. The workflow consists of one hundred cases a
day, each including fifty 60MB image files. However, each image will have five-hundred 64kB metadata files associated
with it. They currently have six years worth of archived data. They will need to migrate to the new solution and they need
to plan for an additional three years of archive capacity.
Which solution would you recommend to fit their capacity needs?
A. 24 NL-Series nodes with N+3 protection policy providing 2597 TiB of useable capacity
B. 18 NL-Series nodes with N+2:1 protection policy providing 2078 TiB of useable capacity
C. 24 X-Series nodes with N+3 protection policy providing 2597 TiB of useable capacity
D. 12 NL-Series nodes with N+2 protection policy providing 1300 TiB of useable capacity
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Which provider supports authentication and lookup facilities for local users and groups that have been defined and are
maintained on the cluster?
A. AD
B. File
C. NIS
D. Local
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
A customer has a cluster of 16 A200 nodes. Due to recent and forecasted growth, they have decided to expand the
cluster by an additional 24 A200 nodes. How many neighborhoods will exist on the cluster when all nodes have joined
the cluster?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Correct Answer: A
Neighborhoods split at 20 nodes. So it already had 2 neighborhoods. With the addition of 24 nodes, it will have 3
neighborhoods in total.


QUESTION 10
An Isilon customer created a scheduled SyncIQ policy to replicate data from an Enterprise-mode SmartLock directory.
The source cluster is now unusable and the target cluster does not automatically allow writes to the data in the
replicated SmartLock directory.
What is the reason why the target cluster did not automatically allow writes of the data?
A. SyncIQ Automated failover is not supported for SmartLock directories; however, manual failover is allowed.
B. Automated failover and manual failover are not allowed on SmartLock directories on the target cluster.
C. A SyncIQ job was running while the source cluster became unusable, thereby removing all data on the target
directory.
D. SnapshotIQ was not licensed on the target cluster; the snapshot of the directory is not available for use by SyncIQ.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
A customer plans to replace an existing array that is supported by the MiTrend Workload Profile Assessment (WPA)
service. You receive performance data from the customer and run a WPA report that shows the array has 50TB of
usable capacity.
In discussions with the customer, you learn the content is comprised of four million 6MB files and 400 million 64KB files.
The customer explains they have a small budget and very limited rack space available in their datacenter. Performance
is not a concern because the files are rarely accessed.
Which configuration provides the needed usable capacity using N+2:1 protection, and requires the least amount of rack
space?
A. 3 x NL400 nodes with 2TB Drives
B. 3 x X400 nodes with 1TB Drives
C. 5 x X200 nodes with 1TB Drives D. 6 x X200 nodes with 1TB Drives
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
A company wants to reduce its footprint in its data center. They recently completed a proof of concept with Hadoop
using Direct Attached Storage (DAS) for their Big Data initiative. You have determined that incorporating an Isilon
cluster into their Hadoop environment would help in reducing this footprint.
Which Hadoop components can be consolidated onto the Isilon cluster to reduce the footprint?
A. DataNode and NameNode
B. DataNode and ComputeNode
C. ComputeNode and NameNode
D. NameNode and TaskTracker
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
A customer is running OneFS 8.0 on an Isilon cluster consisting exclusively of NL400 nodes. The storage administrator
recently heard that OneFS 8.1 provides journal vaulting. What should you advise the storage administrator?
A. Replace the batteries of the battery-backed volatile storage with NiMH batteries.
B. Add SSDs to all nodes of the existing cluster and upgrade to OneFS 8.1.
C. Migrate all data from the current Isilon cluster to a Gen 6 cluster.
D. Add a Gen 6 node to the existing Isilon cluster and upgrade to OneFS 8.1.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
When deploying virtual disks for a UnityVSA system, what is an EMC recommended Disk Provision Policy?
A. Thick Provision Eager Zeroed
B. Thin Provision
C. Thick Provision
D. Thick Provision Lazy Zeroed
Correct Answer: A
EMC recommends the following settings for all virtual disks:
Disk Provisioning: Thick Provision Eager Zeroed.
Location: A different datastore than the VM.

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass e20-393 exam question q2

Which port is used to connect the DPE to a DAE?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.emc.com/collateral/TechnicalDocument/docu69318.pdf

 

QUESTION 3
The cache has sent data to the Data Reduction logic during proactive cleaning or flushing. What is the correct sequence
of steps taken by the Data Reduction logic?
Select and Place:lead4pass e20-393 exam question q3

 

QUESTION 4
What is the function of CloudIQ?
A. Tier to cloud storage
B. Provision storage resources
C. Configure host access
D. Monitor system health
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.emc.com/collateral/white-papers/h15691-emc-cloudiq-overview.pdf

 

QUESTION 5
Which storage access configuration is unique to VMware Datastores?
A. Host IO burst policy
B. vCenter Server
C. IP Multi-tenancy
D. Auto formatting
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
In Unisphere, where can a storage administrator create an asynchronous LUN replication session?
A. LUN Properties window only
B. Replication page only
C. Replication page or the LUN Properties window
D. LUN Creation wizard or the LUN Properties window
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Two fans have failed on the SPE. How much time does the Dell EMC Unity system allow before the SP is shut down?
A. 2 min
B. 3 min
C. 4 min
D. 5 min
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
What pathing options are supported by Dell EMC Unity XT systems to provide a host with Fibre Channel access to block
storage?
A. Single Path, Multipath, and Alternate Path
B. Single Path and Multipath only
C. Multipath only
D. Single Path only
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.dellemc.com/zh-tw/collaterals/unauth/technical-guides-supportinformation/products/storage/docu69325.pdf

 

QUESTION 9
Which storage objects support Advanced Deduplication?
A. VMFS datastores and VVols
B. Thin LUNs and thick LUNs
C. Thick LUNs and VVols
D. Thin LUNs and thin VMFS datastores
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
When creating a NAS Server replication session, which settings are required for the destination NAS Server?
A. Name, Pool, and Storage Provisioning
B. Interface configuration, Pool, and Storage Processor
C. Pool, RPO, and Storage Processor
D. Name, interface configuration, and RPO
Correct Answer: A
References: https://www.emc.com/dam/uwaem/documentation/unity-p-replication-config.pdf
(30)

 

QUESTION 11
A storage administrator is considering adding another application to run on their Unity 300 but they are concerned about
the application\\’s performance. They ask what is considered “normal” for CPU utilization. Based on Dell EMC best
practices, what should be your response?
A. Below 50%
B. 50% – 70%
C. 70% – 90%
D. 90% – 95%
Correct Answer: B
References: https://www.emc.com/collateral/white-papers/h15093-dell-emc-unity-best-practices-guide.pdf
(p.9)

 

QUESTION 12
Which step must be completed prior to performing the initial configuration of a UnityVSA system and creating the first
storage pool?
A. Create an ESXi host profile
B. License the system for NFS and SMB support
C. Add vDisks to the storage appliance
D. Install license keys for thin provisioning
Correct Answer: C
UNITY VSA STORAGE POOL CREATION
1.
Under the Storage, Pool Section go to Pools. Select the + to start the “Create Pool Wizard”.
2.
Name the Pool
3.
Assign a Tier to each Virtual Disk attached to the VSA. You have Extreme, Performance, and Capacity.lead4pass e20-393 exam question q12

Etc.
References: https://samshouseblog.com/2016/06/08/unity-vsa-storage-pool-creation/

 

QUESTION 13
What block size do Dell EMC Unity systems use to copy highly accessed blocks of data from spinning drives into FAST
Cache?
A. 16 KB
B. 32 KB
C. 64 KB
D. 128 KB
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.emc.com/collateral/white-papers/h15086-emc-unity-fast-technology-overview.pdf (2)

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