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QUESTION 1
Which two files must you copy from the Oracle home of the database that is being upgraded to the new Oracle home for
Oracle Database 12c? (Choose three.)
A. the tnsnames.ora file
B. the sqlnet.ora file
C. the initialization parameter file
D. the password file
E. the listener.ora file
Correct Answer: ABE
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e23633/afterup.htm#UPGRD52747

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about Enterprise Manager (EM) express in Oracle Database 12c?
A. By default, EM express is available for a database after database creation.
B. You can use EM express to manage multiple databases running on the same server.
C. You can perform basic administrative tasks for pluggable databases by using the EM express interface.
D. You cannot start-up or shut down a database Instance by using EM express.
E. You can create and configure pluggable databases by using EM express.
Correct Answer: D
References: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/manageability/emx-intro-1965965.html

 

QUESTION 3
Which four statements are true about the components of the Oracle Scheduler? (Choose four.)
A. A schedule can be specified for a single job only.
B. A scheduler job can point to a chain instead of pointing to a single program object.
C. A job may get started automatically when a window opens.
D. A program and job can be specified as part of a schedule definition.
E. A job is specified as part of a program specification.
F. A program can be used in the definition of multiple jobs.
G. A program and schedule can be specified as part of a job definition.
Correct Answer: BCFG
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14231/schedover.htm

 

QUESTION 4
Identify three scenarios in which you would recommend the use of SQL Performance Analyzer to analyze the impact on the
performance of SQL statements.
A. Change in the Oracle Database version
B. Change in your network infrastructure
C. Change in the hardware configuration of the database server
D. Migration of database storage from non-ASM to ASM storage
E. Database and operating system upgrade
Correct Answer: ACE
Oracle 11g/12c makes further use of SQL tuning sets with the SQL Performance Analyzer, which compares the
performance of the statements in a tuning set before and after a database change. The database change can be as
major or minor as you like, such as:
*
(E) Database, operating system, or hardware upgrades.
*
(A, C) Database, operating system, or hardware configuration changes.
*
Database initialization parameter changes.
*
Schema changes, such as adding indexes or materialized views.
*
Refreshing optimizer statistics.
*
Creating or changing SQL profiles.


QUESTION 5
You configured the Fast Recovery Area (FRA) for your database. The database instance is in ARCHIVELOG mode. The
default location for the archived redo log files is the FRA.
Which two files are removed automatically if space is required in the FRA as per the retention policy? (Choose two.)
A. Archived redo log files that have multiple copies in a different archive location
B. user-managed backups of data files and control files
C. RMAN backups that are obsolete
D. flashback logs
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 6
Examine the details of the Top 5 Timed Events in the following Automatic Workloads Repository (AWR) report:[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-062 exam questions q6

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A. The size of the shared pool is too small.
B. Cursors are not being shared.
C. A large number of COMMITS is being performed.
D. There is frequent logons and logoffs.
E. The buffers are being read into the buffer cache, but some other session is changing the buffers.
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 7
You Execute the Following command to create a password file in the database server:
$ orapwd file = `+DATA/PROD/orapwprod entries = 5 ignorecase = N format = 12\\’
Which two statements are true about the password file? (Choose two.)
A. It records the usernames and passwords of users when granted the DBA role.
B. It contains the usernames and passwords of users for whom auditing is enabled.
C. Is used by Oracle to authenticate users for remote database administration.
D. It records the usernames and passwords of all users when they are added to the OSDBA or OSOPER operating
system groups.
E. It supports the SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM system privileges.
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 8
The user SCOTT owns the CUST table that is placed in the SALES tablespace. The user SCOTT opens a session and
executes commands as follows:
SQL> INSERT INTO cust VALUES(101, \\’JACK\\’);
1 row created.
SQL> INSERT INTO cust VALUES(102, \\’SMITH\\’);
1 row created.
As a DBA, you execute the following command from another session:
ALTER TABLESPACE sales READ ONLY;
Which statement is true regarding the effect of this command on the transaction in Scott\\’s session?
A. The command fails as a transaction is still pending.
B. The transaction in Scott\\’s session is rolled back and the tablespace becomes read-only.
C. The command waits and the user SCOTT can execute data manipulation language (DML) statements only as part of
the current transaction.
D. The command hangs until all transactions on the objects in the tablespace commit or rollback, and then the
a tablespace is placed in read-only mode.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
You want to distribute a set of structured data to your customers who can integrate this data into their existing
databases irrespective of the platform.
Which method provides the fastest way of achieving this?
A. using the DBVERIFY utility
B. using direct-path INSERT SQL statements
C. using SQL*Loader
D. using RMAN transportable tablespace operation
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
You are planning the creation of a new multitenant container database (CDB) and want to store the ROOT and SEED
container data files in separate directories.
You plan to create the database using SQL statements.
Which three techniques can you use to achieve this? (Choose three.)
A. Use Oracle Managed Files (OMF).
B. Specify the SEED FILE_NAME_CONVERT clause.
C. Specify the PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT initialization parameter.
D. Specify the DB_FILE_NAMECONVERT initialization parameter.
E. Specify all files in the CREATE DATABASE statement without using Oracle managed Files (OMF).
Correct Answer: ABC
You must specify the names and locations of the seed\\’s files in one of the following ways:
*
(A) Oracle Managed Files
*
(B) The SEED FILE_NAME_CONVERT Clause
*
(C) The PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT Initialization Parameter

 

QUESTION 11
In which three situations can you use threshold server-generated alerts to help diagnose and fix problems? (Choose
three.)
A. when free space in a locally managed tablespace falls below a specified percentage
B. when the number of logons per second exceeds a specific value
C. when a resumable statement is suspended
D. when the total number of locked user account exceeds a specific value
E. when the total number of logons exceeds a specific value
F. when free space in a dictionary managed tablespace falls below a specified percentage
Correct Answer: ABC
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/monitoring001.htm
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/schema001.htm

 

QUESTION 12
In your production database, data manipulation language (DML) operations are executed on the SALES table.
You have noticed some dubious values in the SALES table during the last few days. You are able to track users, actions
taken, and the time of the action for this particular period but the changes in data are not tracked. You decide to keep
track of both the old data and new data in the table long with the user information.
What action would you take to achieve this task?
A. Apply fine-grained auditing.
B. Implement value-based auditing.
C. Impose standard database auditing to audit object privileges.
D. Impose standard database auditing to audit SQL statements.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Your multitenant container (CDB) containing three pluggable databases (PDBs) is running in ARCHIVELOG mode. You
find that the SYSAUX tablespace is corrupted in the root container.
The steps to recover the tablespace are as follows:
1.
Mount the CDB.
2.
Close all the PDBs.
3.
Open the database.
4.
Apply the archive redo logs.
5.
Restore the data file.
6.
Take the SYSAUX tablespace offline.
7.
Place the SYSAUX tablespace online.
8.
Open all the PDBs with RESETLOGS.
9.
Open the database with RESETLOGS.
10.
Execute the command SHUTDOWN ABORT.
Which option identifies the correct sequence to recover the SYSAUX tablespace?
A. 6, 5, 4, 7
B. 10, 1, 2, 5, 8
C. 10, 1, 2, 5, 4, 9, 8
D. 10, 1, 5, 8, 10
Correct Answer: A
RMAN> ALTER TABLESPACE sysaux OFFLINE IMMEDIATE;
RMAN> RESTORE TABLESPACE sysaux;
RMAN> RECOVER TABLESPACE sysaux;
RMAN> ALTER TABLESPACE sysaux ONLINE;
*
Example:
While evaluating the 12c beta3 I was not able to do the recover while testing “all PDB files lost”.
Cannot close the PDB as the system datafile was missing…
So the only option to recover was:
Shutdown cdb (10)
startup mount; (1)
restore pluggable database
recover pluggable database
alter database open;
alter pluggable database name open;
Oracle support says: You should be able to close the PDB and restore/recover the system tablespace of PDB.
*
Inconsistent backups are usually created by taking online database backups. You can also make an inconsistent
backup by backing up data files while a database is closed, either:
/ Immediately after the crash of an Oracle instance (or, in an Oracle RAC configuration, all instances)
/ After shutting down the database using SHUTDOWN ABORT
Inconsistent backups are only useful if the database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and all archived redo logs created since
the backup is available.
*
Open the database with the RESETLOGS option after finishing recovery: SQL> ALTER DATABASE OPEN
RESETLOGS;

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QUESTION 1
A customer has a requirement for a new solution to handle their growing storage requirements. The solution should
have the ability to cover storage needs for the next three years. The environment consists of 100 TBs of file system data
spread across five file systems. On average, the file systems grow 1 TB a month. In addition, they have a large VMware
cluster supporting 200 VMs and a highly transactional database.
The customer wants the solution to offer good performance, scalability, manageability, and be cost-effective. The sales
team is looking to you to recommend a solution.
Which recommendation will meet the customer\\’s requirements?
A. VNX for DB and VMware workloads, and Isilon for file system data
B. Isilon scale-out and cluster as required
C. VNX Unified platform with FAST Cache
D. VMAX with FAST VP and a NAS Gateway
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
You have 1000 users for an application that reads and writes files averaging between one and four MB in size. Each
user requires 24 MB of RAM. You want to add another 1000 users for this application, and in preparation for them, you
run the isi statistics command. You discover that the average CPU utilization is 20%; aggregate throughput averages
700 MB/s and the disk QueueD average is 1.5. Your cluster currently has five X200 (12 GB RAM, 1 TB drive) nodes,
uses N +2:1 protection and 1 GigE networking.
What should you do to accommodate the next 1000 users?
A. Add five additional X200 (12 GB, 1 TB drive) nodes
B. Upgrade each X200 node to a total of 24 GB of RAM.
C. Upgrade two of the 1 GigE NICs to 10 GigE on each node.
D. Add five A100 (24 GB RAM) accelerator nodes.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
When creating a FilePool policy via the OneFS WebUI, what is the maximum allowed number of condition blocks?
B. 3
C. 8
D. No limit
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
A customer is considering the use of RBAC to centrally administer user accounts that can log into multiple Isilon
clusters. What is a potential capability for the customer?
A. Assign users only custom roles with privileges to perform specific administrative tasks
B. Assign individual privileges for specific administrative tasks directly to user accounts
C. Assign users built-in or custom roles with privileges to perform specific administrative tasks
D. Assign users only built-in roles with privileges to perform specific administrative tasks
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
When designing a SmartConnect IP pool, what is the recommended IP address pool allocation method and protocol
state for SMB?
A. Dynamic, stateful
B. Static, stateless
C. Dynamic, stateless
D. Static, stateful
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.dellemc.com/resources/en-us/asset/white-papers/products/storage/h16463-isilon-advancednetworking-fundamentals.pdf

 

QUESTION 6
On an Isilon cluster, how much space should be reserved for snapshots by default?
A. 0%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
A cost-conscious customer is exploring Isilon for their PACS archive. The workflow consists of one hundred cases a
day, each including fifty 60MB image files. However, each image will have five-hundred 64kB metadata files associated
with it. They currently have six years worth of archived data. They will need to migrate to the new solution and they need
to plan for an additional three years of archive capacity.
Which solution would you recommend to fit their capacity needs?
A. 24 NL-Series nodes with N+3 protection policy providing 2597 TiB of useable capacity
B. 18 NL-Series nodes with N+2:1 protection policy providing 2078 TiB of useable capacity
C. 24 X-Series nodes with N+3 protection policy providing 2597 TiB of useable capacity
D. 12 NL-Series nodes with N+2 protection policy providing 1300 TiB of useable capacity
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Which provider supports authentication and lookup facilities for local users and groups that have been defined and are
maintained on the cluster?
A. AD
B. File
C. NIS
D. Local
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
A customer has a cluster of 16 A200 nodes. Due to recent and forecasted growth, they have decided to expand the
cluster by an additional 24 A200 nodes. How many neighborhoods will exist on the cluster when all nodes have joined
the cluster?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Correct Answer: A
Neighborhoods split at 20 nodes. So it already had 2 neighborhoods. With the addition of 24 nodes, it will have 3
neighborhoods in total.


QUESTION 10
An Isilon customer created a scheduled SyncIQ policy to replicate data from an Enterprise-mode SmartLock directory.
The source cluster is now unusable and the target cluster does not automatically allow writes to the data in the
replicated SmartLock directory.
What is the reason why the target cluster did not automatically allow writes of the data?
A. SyncIQ Automated failover is not supported for SmartLock directories; however, manual failover is allowed.
B. Automated failover and manual failover are not allowed on SmartLock directories on the target cluster.
C. A SyncIQ job was running while the source cluster became unusable, thereby removing all data on the target
directory.
D. SnapshotIQ was not licensed on the target cluster; the snapshot of the directory is not available for use by SyncIQ.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
A customer plans to replace an existing array that is supported by the MiTrend Workload Profile Assessment (WPA)
service. You receive performance data from the customer and run a WPA report that shows the array has 50TB of
usable capacity.
In discussions with the customer, you learn the content is comprised of four million 6MB files and 400 million 64KB files.
The customer explains they have a small budget and very limited rack space available in their datacenter. Performance
is not a concern because the files are rarely accessed.
Which configuration provides the needed usable capacity using N+2:1 protection, and requires the least amount of rack
space?
A. 3 x NL400 nodes with 2TB Drives
B. 3 x X400 nodes with 1TB Drives
C. 5 x X200 nodes with 1TB Drives D. 6 x X200 nodes with 1TB Drives
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
A company wants to reduce its footprint in its data center. They recently completed a proof of concept with Hadoop
using Direct Attached Storage (DAS) for their Big Data initiative. You have determined that incorporating an Isilon
cluster into their Hadoop environment would help in reducing this footprint.
Which Hadoop components can be consolidated onto the Isilon cluster to reduce the footprint?
A. DataNode and NameNode
B. DataNode and ComputeNode
C. ComputeNode and NameNode
D. NameNode and TaskTracker
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
A customer is running OneFS 8.0 on an Isilon cluster consisting exclusively of NL400 nodes. The storage administrator
recently heard that OneFS 8.1 provides journal vaulting. What should you advise the storage administrator?
A. Replace the batteries of the battery-backed volatile storage with NiMH batteries.
B. Add SSDs to all nodes of the existing cluster and upgrade to OneFS 8.1.
C. Migrate all data from the current Isilon cluster to a Gen 6 cluster.
D. Add a Gen 6 node to the existing Isilon cluster and upgrade to OneFS 8.1.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
When deploying virtual disks for a UnityVSA system, what is an EMC recommended Disk Provision Policy?
A. Thick Provision Eager Zeroed
B. Thin Provision
C. Thick Provision
D. Thick Provision Lazy Zeroed
Correct Answer: A
EMC recommends the following settings for all virtual disks:
Disk Provisioning: Thick Provision Eager Zeroed.
Location: A different datastore than the VM.

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass e20-393 exam question q2

Which port is used to connect the DPE to a DAE?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.emc.com/collateral/TechnicalDocument/docu69318.pdf

 

QUESTION 3
The cache has sent data to the Data Reduction logic during proactive cleaning or flushing. What is the correct sequence
of steps taken by the Data Reduction logic?
Select and Place:lead4pass e20-393 exam question q3

 

QUESTION 4
What is the function of CloudIQ?
A. Tier to cloud storage
B. Provision storage resources
C. Configure host access
D. Monitor system health
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.emc.com/collateral/white-papers/h15691-emc-cloudiq-overview.pdf

 

QUESTION 5
Which storage access configuration is unique to VMware Datastores?
A. Host IO burst policy
B. vCenter Server
C. IP Multi-tenancy
D. Auto formatting
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
In Unisphere, where can a storage administrator create an asynchronous LUN replication session?
A. LUN Properties window only
B. Replication page only
C. Replication page or the LUN Properties window
D. LUN Creation wizard or the LUN Properties window
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Two fans have failed on the SPE. How much time does the Dell EMC Unity system allow before the SP is shut down?
A. 2 min
B. 3 min
C. 4 min
D. 5 min
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
What pathing options are supported by Dell EMC Unity XT systems to provide a host with Fibre Channel access to block
storage?
A. Single Path, Multipath, and Alternate Path
B. Single Path and Multipath only
C. Multipath only
D. Single Path only
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.dellemc.com/zh-tw/collaterals/unauth/technical-guides-supportinformation/products/storage/docu69325.pdf

 

QUESTION 9
Which storage objects support Advanced Deduplication?
A. VMFS datastores and VVols
B. Thin LUNs and thick LUNs
C. Thick LUNs and VVols
D. Thin LUNs and thin VMFS datastores
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
When creating a NAS Server replication session, which settings are required for the destination NAS Server?
A. Name, Pool, and Storage Provisioning
B. Interface configuration, Pool, and Storage Processor
C. Pool, RPO, and Storage Processor
D. Name, interface configuration, and RPO
Correct Answer: A
References: https://www.emc.com/dam/uwaem/documentation/unity-p-replication-config.pdf
(30)

 

QUESTION 11
A storage administrator is considering adding another application to run on their Unity 300 but they are concerned about
the application\\’s performance. They ask what is considered “normal” for CPU utilization. Based on Dell EMC best
practices, what should be your response?
A. Below 50%
B. 50% – 70%
C. 70% – 90%
D. 90% – 95%
Correct Answer: B
References: https://www.emc.com/collateral/white-papers/h15093-dell-emc-unity-best-practices-guide.pdf
(p.9)

 

QUESTION 12
Which step must be completed prior to performing the initial configuration of a UnityVSA system and creating the first
storage pool?
A. Create an ESXi host profile
B. License the system for NFS and SMB support
C. Add vDisks to the storage appliance
D. Install license keys for thin provisioning
Correct Answer: C
UNITY VSA STORAGE POOL CREATION
1.
Under the Storage, Pool Section go to Pools. Select the + to start the “Create Pool Wizard”.
2.
Name the Pool
3.
Assign a Tier to each Virtual Disk attached to the VSA. You have Extreme, Performance, and Capacity.lead4pass e20-393 exam question q12

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References: https://samshouseblog.com/2016/06/08/unity-vsa-storage-pool-creation/

 

QUESTION 13
What block size do Dell EMC Unity systems use to copy highly accessed blocks of data from spinning drives into FAST
Cache?
A. 16 KB
B. 32 KB
C. 64 KB
D. 128 KB
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.emc.com/collateral/white-papers/h15086-emc-unity-fast-technology-overview.pdf (2)

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You are a transport administrator for an AS ABAP-based SAP system landscape. In the import queue of a single SAP
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are
imported?
There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Response:
A. If an object is included in more than one transport request, only the version in the last transport request is
activated/generated (according to the sequence in the import queue).
B. If an object is included in more than one transport request, it is first stored in the shadow repository. You can then
activate/generate selected versions from the shadow repository later.
C. If an object is included in more than one transport request, you can specify which object version will be
activated/generated using unconditional (import) modes.
D. The objects in the first transport request are imported and activated/generated first, then the objects in the second
transport request, and so on.
E. All objects in all the selected transport requests are merged together
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 2
Using SAPDOCCD.ini, you have several options for changing the way online documentation is accessed. Which of the
following statements are true? There are 3 correct answers to this question. Response:
A. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the user ID (in the SAP system) of the user
calling help.
B. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the logon language (in the SAP system) of
the user calling help.
C. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the release of the SAP system from which
help is being called.
D. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the SID (System ID) of the SAP system
from which help is being called.
Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 3
You are running a system landscape of AS ABAP-based SAP systems. Which options do you have for selecting
transport requests to be imported? There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. You can select a single transport request for import.
B. You can filter transport requests for a certain project and import them together in one step (if you have activated the
CTS functions in transaction SPRO_ADMIN [Customizing: Project Administration]).
C. You can select several individual transport requests to be imported in one step.
D. You can select a single transport request and import it into multiple SAP systems in one step.
E. You can select all transport requests for import that contain objects of a selected package.
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 4
You have to import several transport requests into an AS ABAP-based SAP system using transaction STMS (Transport
Management System). In the import queue of one of the SAP systems the “Import Request” (Import Single) button is
displayed, but the “Import All Requests” (Import All) button is missing.
What could be the reason?
A. The “Import All Requests” button is never available in a development system.
B. The “Queue-controlled transports, single transports” strategy has been set.
C. The authorization for “Import All Requests” is missing for the respective SAP system.
D. Client-specific transport routes have been configured.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is true when creating new clients within an SAP System based on AS ABAP (for example, SAP
ECC)?
A. Log files indicating the success of a new client creation are stored in the home directory of the user initiating the
copy.
B. Customizing and repository objects from a source client are automatically copied to the new client using the client
copy tool.
C. The client transport tool can be used to transfer the same source client, simultaneously, from one SAP System to
multiple other SAP systems in a single action.
D. The client copy can be accelerated by using several dialog work processes in parallel.
E. Remote client copies generate large data files at the operating system level.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Oracle database offers different types of indexes. Which are valid index types? There are 2 correct answers to this
question.
A. Bitmap index
B. Unique master index
C. Dictionary index
D. Balanced tree (B*tree) index
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 7
You are maintaining User Management Engine (UME) principles using the Identity Management tool of an AS Javabased SAP system. To which of the following can you directly assign a UME group? There are 2 correct answers to this
question.
A. JEE security roles
B. UME actions
C. Java users
D. UME roles
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 8
Which statement is correct for both of the tools Config Tool and Visual Administrator? Please choose the correct
answer.
A. All configuration settings require a restart of the system.
B. Only configuration settings made globally require a restart of the system.
C. You have the possibility to maintain configuration settings globally, for all dispatcher nodes of the system at once, or
locally for each specific node.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which types of dialog instances can be installed to an SAP system, depending on the SAP system type? Choose the
correct answer(s).
A. AS ABAP dialog instance
B. Central services dialog instance
C. AS Java dialog instance
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 10
Your customer is configuring a Central User Administration (CUA) in AS ABAP connecting to multiple child systems.
Changes of the attribute “mobile telephone number” in the user master record in one child system should be transferred
to the other relevant child systems. Which setting for the attribute “mobile telephone number” in parameters for field
distribution via transaction SCUM (Central User Administration) do you use to fulfill this requirement? Please choose the
correct answer.
A. Global
B. Redistribution
C. Everywhere
D. Local
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
While you set up an operation mode and work process distribution screen, for which work processes can you increase
the number by 1 without decreasing any others? There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Reserved work processes
B. Spool work processes
C. Enqueue work processes
D. Dialog work processes
E. Update work processes
Correct Answer: ADE

 

QUESTION 12
Which SAP products use SAP NetWeaver? There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. SAP R/3 4.6C
B. SAP CRM
C. SAP Business All-In-One
D. SAP ERP
Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 13
Which statement regarding Local Printing with SAP NetWeaver AS ABAP is correct? Please choose the correct answer
A. If you want to configure Local Printing for an output device, you have to choose access method L or C, depending on
the operating system.
B. If you want to configure Local Printing for an output device, you have to choose access method L for any operating
system.
C. If you want to configure Local Printing for an output device, you have to choose access method U for UNIX operating
systems.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which Default User Role, other than the Admin User, has the ability to import prospects?
A. Sales User
B. Sales Manager
C. Marketing User
D. Root User
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
What\\’s involved in the technical set up?
A. Implement Tracking Code
B. Add Tracker Domain
C. Implement DKIM and SPF
D. Whitelist Sending IP
E. All
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 3
What activities can be done in Pardot\\’s engagement program? [Choose one answer]
A. Trigger, action and rule
B. Trigger, activity and rule
C. Trigger, activity and check
D. Trigger, listen and check
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Describe the limitations the Salesforce connector has with a Salesforce Sandbox Account:
A. Only one CRM Connector at a time
B. You can only access leads with the Salesforce Sandbox Account
C. You can only install the sandbox with a Pardot Training Environment
D. Can\\’t wipe or delete data from Pardot. Will remain in the recycle bin.
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 5
What must happen in order for a newly created lead record in Salesforce to be created in Pardot immediately? (Choose
two answers.)
A. Salesforce connector has sync all setting turned on
B. Lead record has a prospect ID at the time of creation
C. Lead record has an email address at the time of creation
D. Salesforce connector set to automatically create prospects
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 6
What does the calendar view on the dashboard display?
A. Scheduled emails and past emails
B. Scheduled emails
C. Scheduled and past emails, events and webinars
D. Scheduled and past emails, social posts, events and webinars
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
You can create/sync custom objects from which tab in the navigation menu?
A. Marketing
B. Prospects
C. Reports
D. Admin
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
When mapping fields between Pardot and Salesforce how can you control the synchronization? [Choose one answer]
A. Use Salesforce\\’s value
B. Use Pardot\\’s value
C. Use the most recently updated record
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Pardot offers four default user roles. They are:
A. Admin, Marketing User, Sales Manager, Sales User
B. System Administrator, Developer, Sales Manager, Sales User
C. Admin, Marketing User, Partner User, Sales User
D. Developer, Marketing User, Sales Manager, Sales User
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
How can you delete a prospect?
A. Through a completion action.
B. Through an automation rule.
C. You can\\’t delete prospects.
D. Through the prospect table actions.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
What is true about grading? [Choose two answers]
A. A prospect can be associated to multiple profiles.
B. You cannot change the default profile criteria
C. Matching or unmatching a criteria will result in an increase or decrease of the grade by , or 3/3 of a grade.
D. All prospects start with a grade of D.
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 12
A new visitor lands on a page with a Pardot campaign that is set to “Website Tracking.” The visitor then fills out a form
with a Pardot campaign set to “Contact Us.” which Pardot campaign will be associated with the visitor once they convert
by submitting the form?
A. “Contact Us”
B. There will be no campaign assigned since the visitor is unknown.
C. Both “website Tracking” and “Contact Us”
D. “Website Tracking”
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
In order for the Salesforce connector to verify, what does the connector user need to enter?
A. The Administrator\\’s Pardot credential
B. The Administrator\\’s Salesforce credential
C. The connector user\\’s Salesforce credential
D. The connector user\\’s Pardot credential
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
The coffee company sells products for coffee shops and consumers. The company is planning to launch a Community
and has the following goals:
-Go to market quickly
-Generate online revenue rapidly
-Work with a mobile-ready storefront
How should the Community Cloud consultant meet these goals? Select one or more of the following:
A. Use build your own lightning template
B. Use custom lightning components
C. Use a Visualforce page lightning component
D. Use B2B commerce for community cloud
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Universal Containers (UC) has rolled out a Customer Community where customers can ask and answer questions. UC
wants to ensure that customer questions are answered in a timely manner.
How can the Administrator meet this requirement?
Select one or more of the following:
A. Enable Knowledge and Articles
B. Enable Entitlement and Milestone
C. Enable Case Escalation rules
D. Enable question-to-case functionality
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Universal Containers recently rolled out a Community to their partners.
The internal sales team has the following requirements for internal users:

Ability to support the addition of 50 new partners every month.

Ability to pass leads to the partners.
-Continue to have access to the leads after transfer to partners.
-Access to the opportunity when the partner converts the lead.
-Leads should be visible to only the partner who is working on the lead; other partners should NOT have access to the
lead.
Which sharing option should the Salesforce Admin choose to meet the requirement for internal users?
A. Create a sharing rule to share leads and opportunities to internal users.
B. Use sharing sets to share leads and opportunities to internal users.
C. Create a public group and include partners and share records with the public group using sharing rules.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
Northern Trail Outfitters uses Knowledge Articles to address customer questions in their Customer Service (Napili)
Template-based Community. They need to know if these Articles are helpful to customers when they search for help in
the Community.
What is the most efficient way for a Salesforce Admin to get this information from customers?
A. Redirect customers to a survey form on an external website that captures their comments on the Knowledge Article.
B. Create a customer survey using custom Lightning components and add it to the homepage.
C. Build a custom Community page that shows the Knowledge Article and have custom fields to capture customer
comments.
D. Enable the article voting property on the Article Content component in the article detail page in
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Universal Containers sets up and publishes a Community. What three things should a Salesforce Admin do to log into
the Community and validate the Community features? Choose 3 answers
A. Select a Customer user record and select the Login option.
B. Choose Login to the Community as a user from the contact record in Salesforce.
C. Select the Community from the App Launcher as an internal user.
D. Log in as a customer to the Community with a Test customer login.
E. Preview the Community as a specific Community user in the preview mode of the Community builder.
Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 6
It\\’s been a long and exciting week of developing your new Customer Community, so exciting in fact you just removed
the Administrator profile from the Selected Community Profiles and can no longer access the Community. What should
you do next?
A. Create a case with Salesforce support
B. Disable the community and reactivate it as this automatically adds the Administrator Profile
C. Perform Community Membership updates using the API
D. Go into Setup >> Community Settings and Select >> Apply default access settings
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Universal Containers needs to announce their upcoming Annual Conference to all members of their Customer
Community. In which two ways should this be set up? Choose 2 answers.
A. In the Community Workspaces, target all Recommendations to a new Audience Type.
B. In Community Builder, add the Featured Recommendations Component to the page.
C. In the Community Workspaces, create the Recommendation.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
What are the four stages of the Community Roll-out framework?
A. Plan > Develop > Test > Review
B. Design > Implement > Grow > Review
C. Create > Communicate > Design > Implement
D. Analyse > Design > Implement > Maintain
E. Establish > Manage > Measure > Engage
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 9
Universal Containers create a Community for their partners. Members of the Community should not be able to
participate in discussions with other members. However, users from the same partner should be able to hold
discussions amongst themselves. How should the Salesforce Admin meet this requirement?
A. Deselect Community User Visibility under Sharing Settings
B. Update the Internal User record to Private under Sharing Settings
C. Create a sharing group for partner accounts under Sharing Settings
D. Turn off Portal User Visibility under Sharing Settings
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
Universal Containers (UC) recently built a community for its customers. UC stores customer invoices outside of
Salesforce. UC wants to allow customers to be able to search for and view the invoices immediately after creation.
Which
Salesforce feature should the Community Cloud consultant recommend?
Select one or more of the following:
A. Files connect
B. External services
C. File sync
D. Chatter and files
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
What do you recommend? Universal Containers have launched their Customer Community on the Koa template.
Community members have asked your advice for accessing the community on iOS devices.
A. IOS users should download the Salesforce1 app and access the community through the Salesforce1 switcher.
B. Navigate to the community URL in the browser and a mobile experience will be automatically rendered.
C. IOS users should download the OneCommunity app where they can use their regular community login credentials to
access the Community.
D. All users should access a Koa Community via a Desktop browser only.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Universal Containers uses Community to grant customers secure access to their accounts, orders, and invoices. All
customers are on a Customer Community License. Universal Containers needs to grant a subset of their customers,
known as affiliates, access to other customer Accounts. How should a Salesforce Admin fulfill these requirements?
A. Leverage the Account team to grant affiliates access to the Account.
B. Use Apex without sharing to control affiliates\\’ access to the Account.
C. Create a public group for affiliates and grant Account access using sharing rules.
D. Add a Sharing Set on the Account associated with the Affiliate profile.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
Universal Containers is launching a Community with the following requirements:
-Branding requirement is limited to logo and font.
-Configurable Navigation with the option to navigate to custom objects and records.
-Access to articles is limited per Date Category Visibility.
Which template should the Salesforce Admin use to build this Community that will natively support these capabilities?
A. Kokua
B. Koa
C. Customer Service (Napili)
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
An organization is considering whether to allow employees to use personal computing devices for business purposes.
To BEST facilitate senior management\\’s decision, the information security manager should:
A. perform a cost-benefit analysis
B. map the strategy to business objectives
C. conduct a risk assessment
D. develop a business case
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following would prevent unauthorized changes to information stored in a server\\’s log?
A. Write-protecting the directory containing the system log
B. Writing a duplicate log to another server
C. Daily printing of the system log
D. Storing the system log in write-once media
Correct Answer: D
Storing the system log in write-once media ensures the log cannot be modified. Write- protecting the system log does
not prevent deletion or modification, since the superuser or users that have special permission can override the write
protection. Writing a duplicate log to another server or daily printing of the system log cannot prevent unauthorized
changes.

 

QUESTION 3
An IS auditor is reviewing a project to implement a payment system between a parent bank and a subsidiary. The IS
auditor should FIRST verify that the:
A. technical platforms between the two companies are interoperable.
B. parent bank is authorized to serve as a service provider.
C. security features are in place to segregate subsidiary trades.
D. subsidiary can join as a co-owner of this payment system.
Correct Answer: B
Even between parent and subsidiary companies, contractual agreement(s) should be in place to conduct shared
services. This is particularly important in highly regulated organizations such as banking. Unless granted to serve as a
service provider, it may not be legal for the bank to extend business to the subsidiary companies. Technical aspects
should always be considered; however, this can be initiated after confirming that the parent bank can serve as a service
provider. Security aspects are another important factor; however, this should be considered after confirming that the
parent bank can serve as a service provider. The ownership of the payment system is not as important as the legal
authorization to operate the system.

 

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is the most important element in the design of a data warehouse?
A. Quality of the metadata
B. Speed of the transactions
C. Volatility of the data
D. Vulnerability of the system
Correct Answer: A
Quality of the metadata is the most important element in the design of a data warehouse. A data warehouse is a copy of
transaction data specifically structured for query and analysis. Metadata aim to provide a table of contents to the
information stored in the data warehouse. Companies that have built warehouses believe that metadata are the most
important component of the warehouse.

 

QUESTION 5
Talking about application system audit, focus should always be placed on (Choose five.)
A. performance and controls of the system
B. the ability to limit unauthorized access and manipulation
C. input of data are processed correctly
D. output of data are processed correctly
E. changes to the system are properly authorized
F. None of the choices.
Correct Answer: ABCDE
Talking about application system audit, focus should be placed on the performance and controls of the system, its ability
to limit unauthorized access and manipulation, that input and output of data are processed correctly on the system, that
any changes to the system are authorized, and that users have access to the system.

 

QUESTION 6
The information security policy that states \\’each individual must have their badge read at every controlled door\\’
addresses which of the following attack methods?
A. Piggybacking
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Dumpster diving
D. Impersonation
Correct Answer: A
Piggybacking refers to unauthorized persons following authorized persons, either physically or virtually, into restricted
areas. This policy addresses the polite behavior problem of holding doors open for a stranger, if every employee must
have their badge read at every controlled door no unauthorized person could enter the sensitive area. Looking over the
shoulder of a user to obtain sensitive information could be done by an unauthorized person who has gained access to
areas using piggybacking, but this policy specifically refers to physical access control. Shoulder surfing would not be
prevented by the implementation of this policy. Dumpster diving, looking through an organization\\’s trash for valuable
information, could be done outside the company\\’s physical perimeter; therefore, this policy would not address this
attack method. Impersonation refers to a social engineer acting as an employee, trying to retrieve the desired
information. Some forms of social engineering attacks could join an impersonation attack and piggybacking, but this
information security policy does not address the impersonation attack.

 

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an IS auditor to issue an interim audit report?
A. To avoid issuing a final audit report
B. To enable the auditor to complete the engagement in a timely manner
C. To provide feedback to the auditee for timely remediation
D. To provide follow-up opportunity during the audit
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
An organization has outsourced many application development activities to a third party that uses contract programmers
extensively. Which of the following would provide the BEST assurance that the third party\\’s contract programmers
comply with the organization\\’s security policies?
A. Perform periodic security assessments of the contractors\\’ activities.
B. Conduct periodic vulnerability scans of the application.
C. Include penalties for noncompliance in the contracting agreement.
D. Require annual signed agreements of adherence to security policies.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
With respect to the outsourcing of IT services, which of the following conditions should be of GREATEST concern to an
IS auditor?
A. Outsourced activities are core and provide a differentiated advantage to the organization.
B. Periodic renegotiation is specified in the outsourcing contract.
C. The outsourcing contract fails to cover every action required by the arrangement.
D. Similar activities are outsourced to more than one vendor.
Correct Answer: A
An organization\\’s core activities generally should not be outsourced, because they are what the organization does
best; an IS auditor observing that should be concerned. An IS auditor should not be concerned about the other
conditions because specification of periodic renegotiation in the outsourcing contract is a best practice. Outsourcing
contracts cannot be expected to cover every action and detail expected of the parties involved, while multisourcing is an
acceptable way to reduce risk.

 

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is an oft-cited cause of vulnerability of networks?
A. software monoculture
B. software diversification
C. single line of defense
D. multiple DMZ
E. None of the choices.
Correct Answer: A
An oft-cited cause of vulnerability of networks is homogeneity or software monoculture. In particular, Microsoft Windows
has such a large share of the market that concentrating on it will enable a cracker to subvert a large number of systems.
Introducing inhomogeneity purely for the sake of robustness would however bring high costs in terms of training and
maintenance.

 

QUESTION 11
Which of the following do digital signatures provide?
A. Authentication and integrity of data
B. Authentication and confidentiality of data
C. Confidentiality and integrity of data
D. Authentication and availability of data
Correct Answer: A
The primary purpose of digital signatures is to provide authentication and integrity of data.

 

QUESTION 12
During a follow-up audit, an IS auditor discovers that a recommendation has not been implemented. However, the
auditee has implemented a manual workaround that addresses the identified risk, through far less efficiency than the
recommended action would. Which of the following would be the auditor\\’s BEST course of action?
A. Notify management that the risk has been addressed and take no further action.
B. Escalate the remaining issue for further discussion and resolution.
C. Note that the risk has been addressed and notify management of the inefficiency.
D. Insist to management that the original recommendation be implemented.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
The ultimate purpose of IT governance is to:
A. encourage optimal use of IT.
B. reduce IT costs.
C. decentralize IT resources across the organization.
D. centralize control of IT.
Correct Answer: A
IT governance is intended to specify the combination of decision rights and accountability that is best for the enterprise.
It is different for every enterprise. Reducing IT costs may not be the best IT governance outcome for an enterprise.
Decentralizing IT resources across the organization is not always desired, although it may be desired in a decentralized
environment. Centralizing control of IT is not always desired. An example of where it might be desired is an enterprise
desiring a single point of customer contact.

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following are typical Huawei AntiDDoS cases outside China?
A. KIO in Mexico
B. Netherlands NBIP
C. Netherlands Equinix
D. Netherlands Serverius
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 2
Which subcards does the CE8861 support?
A. 10GE
B. 25GE
C. 40GE
D. 100GE
Correct Answer: ABCD

 

QUESTION 3
IDC need what kind of features to meet the requirement of service (Multiple Choice)
A. High density 100G/40G/10G port
B. Easy management solution NQA/Netstream
C. VxLAN for SDN-based overlay solution for multi-tenant scenario
D. multi-DC interconnection
Correct Answer: ABCD

 

QUESTION 4
Which of the following switches supports downlink optical ports?
A. S6720-26Q-SI-24S-AC
B. S5720-16X-PWH-LI-AC
C. S5730-48C-SI-AC
D. S2720-52TP-EI-AC
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following models are ICT gateways?
A. AR510 series
B. AR160-M series
C. AR3600 series
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 6
Huawei\\’s agile education solution offers the following features? (Multiple Choice)
A. High Capacity User Management
B. Wired and Wireless In-Depth Convergence
C. Software-defined Education Network
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 7
What\\’s the configuration of fans in TOR chassis?
A. Single fan tray with a single fan
B. Single fan tray with dual fans.
C. Dual fan trays, single fan in each tray.
D. Dual fan trays, dual fans in each tray.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
The maximum overall data rate of AP7050DE
A. 1.3Gbps
B. 1.73Gbps
C. 2.33Gbps
D. 2.53Gbps
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Which models are ICT gateway? (Multiple Choice)
A. AR510 Series
B. AR160-M Series
C. AR3600 Series
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 10
Cisco\\’s C2960S can support G.8032 either.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
the MAC table size of CE12800\\’s F series line card is()
A. 256K
B. 512K
C. 750K
D. 1M
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
eSight and U2000 both can manage the full series of AR routers.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
HUAWEI CE datacenter Switch implements full orthogonal hardware architecture to improve the device capacity.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which Citrix Director view can a Citrix Administrator access to view the health of database services, the license server,
and any hypervisor-hosting connections?
A. Applications
B. Trends
C. Alerts
D. Dashboard
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/xenapp-and-xendesktop/7-15-ltsr/citrix-vdi-best-practices/monitor.html

 

QUESTION 2
What is the result of executing the command on the Citrix ADC?
A. Interface 1/1 is bound to VLAN 20, and native VLAN is 1.
B. Interface 1/1 is bound to VLAN 20, and the native VLAN is 40.
C. Interface 1/1 is bound to VLAN 20, and native VLAN is NOT changed.
D. Interface 1/1 is bound to VLAN 20, and native VLAN is 20.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Which log records detailed information such as statistics, metrics, and debug information on the Citrix ADC in a
proprietary binary format?
A. Syslog
B. Nstrace
C. Nsconfig
D. Nslog
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
How can a Citrix Administrator guarantee the availability of resource locations in a Citrix Cloud deployment?
A. Deploy at least two Cloud Connectors for each resource location and load-balance them using Citrix ADC.
B. Deploy at least two Cloud Connectors for each resource location.
C. Convert one Cloud Connector to a template and deploy it when another Cloud Connector goes down.
D. Deploy one Cloud Connector in each resource location.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-cloud-government/system-requirements/cloud-connectorrequirements.html#deployment-scenarios-for-cloud-connectors-in-active-directory

 

QUESTION 5
A Citrix Administrator has deployed a non-domain-joined StoreFront server.
Which two options should the administrator be aware of with this deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Authentication occurs at the Domain Controller.
B. Two-factor authentication is NOT supported.
C. Authentication occurs at the Citrix ADC.
D. Server groups are NOT supported.
E. Authentication occurs at the Delivery Controller.
F. Server groups are supported.
Correct Answer: DE
Reference: https://www.citrix.com/blogs/2016/06/01/whats-new-in-storefront-3-6/

 

QUESTION 6
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator maintains a Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops Site with local storage that contains
several logical disk space locations. The administrator would like to reduce the total number of writes on the storage.
What can the administrator implement with the minimal administrative effort to address these needs?
A. Citrix Provisioning
B. Machine Creation Services input/output optimization
C. Personal vDisk
D. Storage Area Network (SAN)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is configuring a Citrix ADC high availability (HA) pair with an existing Primary Citrix ADC
with all resources configured. The administrator added the Secondary Citrix ADC in high availability and found that the
configuration on the existing primary was removed. It is now the Secondary Citrix ADC in the HA pair.
Which two configurations could the administrator have made to prevent this from happening? (Choose two.)
A. Enable HA monitoring on all the interfaces of the SECONDARY device.
B. Set the Secondary Citrix ADC to STAY SECONDARY in the Configure HA Node settings.
C. Set the Primary Citrix ADC to STAY PRIMARY in the Configure HA Node settings.
D. Enable HA monitoring on all the interfaces of the PRIMARY device.
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/ja-jp/netscaler/11/system/high-availability-introduction/forcing-the-primary-node-stayprimary.html

 

QUESTION 8
Creating Application Groups requires the delegated administration permission of the ___________ Administration built-in role. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. Host
B. Delivery Group
C. machine catalog
D. Help Desk
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/xenapp-and-xendesktop/7-15-ltsr/install-configure/application-groupscreate.html

 

QUESTION 9
A Citrix Administrator has configured the Citrix ADC as a DNS Proxy Server. The administrator executed the following
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What will be the effect of executing the above commands?
A. Set the AA bit of DNS Request
B. Set the AA bit of DNS Response
C. Unset the AA bit of DNS Request
D. Unset the AA bit of DNS Response
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
Which step does a Citrix Administrator need to take to enable Citrix XML Service trust for user access within a Citrix
Virtual Apps and Desktops infrastructure?
A. Enable XML Service trust using the StoreFront console.
B. Run the Set-BrokerSite -TrustRequestsSentToTheXMLServicePort $true PowerShell command from within a Virtual
Delivery Agent (VDA) machine.
C. Run the Set-BrokerSite -TrustRequestsSentToTheXMLServicePort $true PowerShell command from within a
Controller.
D. Configure the appropriate XML Service Trust settings using HDX policy within Citrix Studio.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/storefront/current-release/plan/user-authentication.html

 

QUESTION 11
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to grant permissions to a contractor to manage an inventory application in Citrix
Virtual Apps and Desktops Service managed in Citrix Cloud. The administrator needs to minimize the access granted to
the contractor to only administer the inventory application. Which two permissions will the administrator need to grant to
the contractor? (Choose two.)
A. Custom access in Citrix Cloud
B. Cloud Administrator in the Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops Service
C. Help Desk Administrator in Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops Service
D. Full Administrator in Citrix Cloud
E. Delivery Group Administrator in the Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops Service
Correct Answer: AE
Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-virtual-apps-desktops-service/manage-deployment/delegatedadministration.html

 

QUESTION 12
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator has a Citrix ADC SDX with four VPX instances configured. The SDX has a 10GB
bandwidth license that has been configured with a dedicated bandwidth of 2GB for each instance. However, the
administrator found that three instances do NOT ever reach the bandwidth limit, while one instance reaches the limit
and needs 1GB more bandwidth to accommodate increased traffic requests.
What can the administrator change on the instance that requires more bandwidth, to meet traffic requirements?
A. Configure burst capacity on the instance adding 1 GB of bandwidth with burst priority 0.
B. Purchase an SDX license to increase the bandwidth on the instances.
C. Configure burst capacity of 1GB with priority 10.
D. Configure the LA channel to increase the bandwidth.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
What statement best describes the Proxy ARP feature for Manual NAT in R80.10?
A. Automatic proxy ARP configuration can be enabled
B. Translate Destination on Client Side should be configured
C. fw ctl proxy should be configured
D. local.arp file must always be configured
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?
A. Capsule Docs
B. Capsule Cloud
C. Capsule Enterprise
D. Capsule Workspace
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
The Security Gateway is installed on GAIA R80. The default port for the Web User Interface is ______.
A. TCP 18211
B. TCP 257
C. TCP 4433
D. TCP 443
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
How can SmartView application accessed?
A. http:///smartview
B. http://:4434/smartview/
C. https:///smartview/
D. https://:4434/smartview/
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
What two ordered layers make up the Access Control Policy Layer?
A. URL Filtering and Network
B. Network and Threat Prevention
C. Application Control and URL Filtering
D. Network and Application Control
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
Which of these is an implicit MEP option?
A. Primary-backup
B. Source address based
C. Round robin
D. Load Sharing
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_VPN_AdminGuide/13812.htm

 

QUESTION 7
Which of the following statements is TRUE about R80 management plug-ins?
A. The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.
B. Installing a management plug-in requires a Snapshot, just like any upgrade process.
C. A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new features and support for new
products.
D. Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to specific features of the plug-in.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which one of these features is NOT associated with the Check Point URL Filtering and Application Control Blade?
A. Detects and blocks malware by correlating multiple detection engines before users are affected.
B. Configure rules to limit the available network bandwidth for specified users or groups.
C. Use UserCheck to help users understand that certain websites are against the company\\’s security policy.
D. Make rules to allow or block applications and Internet sites for individual applications, categories, and risk levels.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_AppControl_WebAdmin/60902.htm

 

QUESTION 9
With MTA (Mail Transfer Agent) enabled the gateways to manages SMTP traffic and holds external email with potentially
malicious attachments. What is required in order to enable MTA (Mail Transfer Agent) functionality in the Security
Gateway?
A. Threat Cloud Intelligence
B. Threat Prevention Software Blade Package
C. Endpoint Total Protection
D. Traffic on port 25
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
The ____ software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to detect and block malware.
A. Next Generation Threat Prevention
B. Next Generation Threat Emulation
C. Next Generation Threat Extraction
D. Next-Generation Firewall
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
On what port does the CPM process run?
A. TCP 857
B. TCP 18192
C. TCP 900
D. TCP 19009
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_MultiDomainSecurity/html_frameset.htm?topic=docum
ents/R80/CP_R80_MultiDomainSecurity/15420

 

QUESTION 12
SmartEvent provides a convenient way to run a common command-line executable that can assist in investigating
events. Right-clicking the IP address, source, or destination, in an event provides a list of default and customized
commands. They appear only on cells that refer to IP addresses because the IP address of the active cell is used as the
destination of the command when run. The default commands are:
A. ping, traceroute, netstat, and route
B. ping, nslookup, Telnet, and route
C. ping, whois, nslookup, and Telnet
D. ping, traceroute, netstat, and nslookup
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_SmartEventIntro_AdminGuide/17468.htm

 

QUESTION 13
Automation and Orchestration differ in that:
A. Automation relates to codifying tasks, whereas orchestration relates to codifying processes.
B. Automation involves the process of coordinating an exchange of information through web service interactions such as
XML and JSON, but orchestration does not involve processes.
C. Orchestration is concerned with executing a single task, whereas automation takes a series of tasks and puts them
all together into a process workflow.
D. Orchestration relates to codifying tasks, whereas automation relates to codifying processes.
Correct Answer: A

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