Latest update Amazon DVA-C01 exam dumps tips and practice tests

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Table Of Content:

  1. Amazon DVA-C01 exam tips
  2. Amazon DVA-C01 exam details
  3. Amazon DVA-C01 Exam process
  4. Amazon DVA-C01 exam dumps (pdf + vce)
  5. Free sharing of Amazon DVA-C01 practice test questions
  6. Amazon DVA-C01 Coupon Code

Latest update Amazon DVA-C01 exam tips

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Amazon DVA-C01 exam details

  • Vendor: Amazon
  • Exam Code: DVA-C01
  • Exam Name: AWS Certified Developer – Associate (DVA-C01)
  • Certification: AWS Certified Associate
  • Total Questions: 436 Q&A
  • Exam Language: English
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Amazon DVA-C01 Exam process

aws-training

AWS Certification helps learners build credibility and confidence by validating their cloud expertise with an industry-recognized credential, and organizations identify skilled professionals to lead cloud initiatives using AWS.

  1. Schedule and manage exams

2. View your certification history

3. Access your digital badges

4. Take a practice exam

5. View your certification benefits

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Lead4Pass DVA-C01 exam dumps include two learning formats: PDF and VCE! Lead4Pass has been serving new and old customers for many years, and we have accumulated a good reputation!
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QUESTION 1
What does an Amazon SQS delay queue accomplish?
A. Messages are hidden for a configurable amount of time when they are first added to the queue.
B. Messages are hidden for a configurable amount of time after they are consumed from the queue.
C. The consumer can poll the queue for a configurable amount of time before retrieving a message.
D. Message cannot be deleted for a configurable amount of time after they are consumed from the queue.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSSimpleQueueService/latest/SQSDeveloperGuide/sqsdelayqueues.html

 

QUESTION 2
An application displays a status dashboard. The status is updated by 1 KB messages from an SQS queue.
Although the status changes infrequently, the Developer must minimize the time between the message
arrives in the queue and the dashboard update.
What technique provides the shortest delay in updating the dashboard?
A. Retrieve the messages from the queue using long polling every 20 seconds.
B. Reduce the size of the messages by compressing them before sending.
C. Retrieve the messages from the queue using short polling every 10 seconds.
D. Reduce the size of each message payload by sending it in two parts.
Correct Answer: A
https://docs.aws.amazon.com/ko_kr/AWSSimpleQueueService/latest/SQSDeveloperGuide/sqs-short-andlongpolling.html#sqs-short-long-polling-differences

 

QUESTION 3
What is required to trace Lambda-based applications with AWS X-Ray?
A. Send logs from the Lambda application to an S3 bucket; trigger a Lambda function from the bucket to send data to
AWS X-Ray.
B. Trigger a Lambda function from the application logs in Amazon CloudWatch to submit tracing data to AWS X-Ray.
C. Use an IAM execution role to give the Lambda function permissions and enable tracing.
D. Update and add AWS X-Ray daemon code to relevant parts of the Lambda function to set up the trace.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/lambda/latest/dg/services-xray.html

 

QUESTION 4
A Developer is making changes to a custom application that is currently using AWS Elastic Beanstalk.
After the Developer completes the changes, what solutions will update the Elastic Beanstalk environment with the new
application version? (Choose two.)
A. Package the application code into a .zip file, and upload, then deploy the packaged application from the AWS
Management Console
B. Package the application code into a .tar file, create a new application version from the AWS Management Console,
then update the environment by using AWS CLI
C. Package the application code into a .tar file, and upload and deploy the packaged application from the AWS
Management Console
D. Package the application code into a .zip file, create a new application version from the packaged application by using
AWS CLI, then update the environment by using AWS CLI
E. Package the application code into a .zip file, create a new application version from the AWS Management Console,
then rebuild the environment by using AWS CLI
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 5
A developer is building an AWS Lambda function that will dynamically generate and send a weekly newsletter to
100.000 users This newsletter contains both static text and images The developer needs a fast and highly scalable
a place to store the images that will be hyperlinked in the newsletter Where should the developer store these images?
A. Use an Amazon DynamoDB table with DynamoDB Streams and read capacity autoscaling enabled
B. Use an Amazon S3 bucket and S3 Transfer Acceleration to speed up the image download
C. Use an Amazon Aurora database with a public DNS endpoint and auto-scaling enabled
D. Use an Amazon S3 backed Amazon CloudFront distribution with a high Time-to-Live (TTL) to maximize caching
Correct Answer: D

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The latest update Amazon DOP-C01 exam dumps tips and practice tests

Lead4pass Amazon Certification

Table Of Content:

  1. Amazon DOP-C01 exam tips
  2. Amazon DOP-C01 exam details
  3. Amazon DOP-C01 Exam process
  4. Amazon DOP-C01 exam dumps (pdf + vce)
  5. Free sharing of Amazon DOP-C01 practice test questions
  6. Amazon DOP-C01 Coupon Code

Latest update Amazon DOP-C01 exam tips

How to get high exam returns! You need to study hard, take the exam, and then successfully pass the exam to get a good job! I am an Amazon AWS Certified Expert Certified Exam Expert. Next, how to easily pass the exam, I will share with you! After passing the Amazon AWS Certified Professional certification exam,
You will easily find a job or increase high returns! Any exam is not easy! But my suggestion will help you increase the pass rate! Pass the exam successfully! Keep reading my article!

Lead4pass.com-This is my recommended website for the best successful Amazon AWS Certified Professional Certification Exam (exam code “DOP-C01”)! There are many people taking the Amazon AWS Certified Professional certification exam, But the success rate is very low! Many people need several times to succeed! This is a huge cash investment! In order to succeed in the first exam, I recommend using the Lead4Pass – DOP-C01 dumps.
Lead4Pass updated exam questions and answers throughout the year! You can choose pdf or VCE! Simple and easy to learn! Easy to buy. The necessary website to successfully pass the exam.

Amazon DOP-C01 exam details

  • Vendor: Amazon
  • Exam Code: DOP-C01
  • Exam Name: AWS Certified DevOps Engineer – Professional (DOP-C01)
  • Certification: AWS Certified Professional
  • Total Questions: 449 Q&A
  • Exam Language: English
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Amazon DOP-C01 Exam process

aws-training

AWS Certification helps learners build credibility and confidence by validating their cloud expertise with an industry-recognized credential, and organizations identify skilled professionals to lead cloud initiatives using AWS.

Schedule and manage exams

1.View your certification history

2.Access your digital badges

3.Take a practice exam

4.View your certification benefits

Lead4Pass Amazon DOP-C01 Exam Dumps (pdf + vce)

Lead4Pass DOP-C01 exam dumps include two learning formats: PDF and VCE! Lead4Pass has been serving new and old customers for many years, and we have accumulated a good reputation!
Lead4Pass has helped many customers successfully obtain the Amazon AWS Certified Professional certification exam certification. All candidates have used the Lead4Pass DOP-C01 dumps and obtained certification. Whether you are preparing for the DOP-C01 exam or have an unpleasant exam experience! Please trust Lead4Pass.
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QUESTION 1
What is required to achieve gigabit network throughput on EC2? You already selected cluster-compute, 10GB instances
with enhanced networking, and your workload is already network-bound, but you are not seeing 10-gigabit speeds.
A. Enable biplex networking on your servers, so packets are non-blocking in both directions and there\\’s no switching
overhead.
B. Ensure the instances are in different VPCs so you don\\’t saturate the Internet Gateway on any one VPC.
C. Select PIOPS for your drives and mount several, so you can provision sufficient disk throughput.
D. Use a placement group for your instances so the instances are physically near each other in the same Availability
Zone.
Correct Answer: D
You are not guaranteed 10gigabit performance, except within a placement group. A placement group is a logical
grouping of instances within a single Availability Zone. Using placement groups enables applications to participate in a
low-latency, 10 Gbps network. Placement groups are recommended for applications that benefit from low network
latency, high network throughput, or both. Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/placement-groups.html

 

QUESTION 2
What is the maximum supported single-volume throughput on EBS?
A. 320MiB/s
B. 160MiB/s
C. 40MiB/s
D. 640MiB/s
Correct Answer: A
The ceiling throughput for PIOPS on EBS is 320MiB/s.
Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/EBSVolumeTypes.html

 

QUESTION 3
A developer tested an application locally and then deployed it to AWS Lambda. While testing the application remotely,
the Lambda function fails with an access denied message.
How can this issue be addressed?
A. Update the Lambda function\\’s execution role to include the missing permissions.
B. Update the Lambda function\\’s resource policy to include the missing permissions.
C. Include an IAM policy document at the root of the deployment package and redeploy the Lambda function.
D. Redeploy the Lambda function using an account with access to the AdministratorAccess policy.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/premiumsupport/knowledge-center/access-denied-lambda-s3-bucket/

 

QUESTION 4
A large enterprise is deploying a web application on AWS. The application runs on Amazon EC2 instances behind an
Application Load Balancer. The instances run in an Auto Scaling group across multiple Availability Zones. The
application stores data in an Amazon RDS Oracle DB instance and Amazon DynamoDB. There are separate
environments for development, testing, and production. What is the MOST secure and flexible way to obtain password
credentials during deployment?
A. Retrieve an access key from an AWS Systems Manager SecureString parameter to access AWS services. Retrieve
the database credentials from a Systems Manager SecureString parameter.
B. Launch the EC2 instances with an EC2 IAM role to access AWS services. Retrieve the database credentials from
AWS Secrets Manager.
C. Retrieve an access key from an AWS Systems Manager plaintext parameter to access AWS services. Retrieve the
database credentials from a Systems Manager SecureString parameter.
D. Launch the EC2 instances with an EC2 IAM role to access AWS services. Store the database passwords in an
encrypted config file with the application artifacts.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
A company using AWS CodeCommit for source control wants to automate its continuous integration and continuous
deployment pipeline on AWS in its development environment. The company has three requirements:
1.
There must be a legal and a security review of any code change to make sure sensitive information is not leaked
through the source code.
2.
Every change must go through unit testing.
3.
Every change must go through a suite of functional testing to ensure functionality. In addition, the company has the
following requirements for automation:
1.
Code changes should automatically trigger the CI/CD pipeline.
2.
Any failure in the pipeline should notify [email protected]
3.
There must be approved to stage the assets to Amazon S3 after tests have been performed.
What should a DevOps Engineer do to meet all of these requirements while following CI/CD best practices?
A. Commit to the development branch and trigger AWS CodePipeline from the development branch.
Make an individual stage in CodePipeline for security review, unit tests, functional tests, and manual approval. Use
Amazon CloudWatch metrics to detect changes in pipeline stages and Amazon SES for emailing [email protected]
B. Commit to mainline and trigger AWS CodePipeline from mainline. Make an individual stage in CodePipeline for
security review, unit tests, functional tests, and manual approval. Use AWS CloudTrail logs to detect changes in pipeline
stages and Amazon SNS for emailing [email protected]
C. Commit to the development branch and trigger AWS CodePipeline from the development branch. Make an individual
stage in CodePipeline for security review, unit tests, functional tests, and manual approval. Use Amazon CloudWatch
Events to detect changes in pipeline stages and Amazon SNS for emailing [email protected]
D. Commit to mainline and trigger AWS CodePipeline from mainline. Make an individual stage in CodePipeline for
security review, unit tests, functional tests, and manual approval. Use Amazon CloudWatch Events to detect changes in
pipeline stages and Amazon SES for emailing [email protected]
Correct Answer: C

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Amazon exam experts design and long-term word-of-mouth cast results! Choosing Lead4Pass PDF and VCE (Practice Exam) will help you get the most out of your exam and help
You save more on learning practices and get the latest exam tips. Successfully passing the Amazon DOP-C01 exam will not only help you gain certification but will also help you stand out and achieve higher levels in your career
Return! Our DOP-C01 exam preparation materials are created by the latest exam question updates that are fed back in each practice exam! Amazon AWS Certified Professional Certifications experts are available to update and change the latest exam questions and answers.

If the purchase of our products after the change, within 60 days of purchase to obtain a replacement of the product. Most importantly, if you first try to pass our study materials and fail the exam we will buy it for you
A full refund is available for the product. Our sole purpose is to help you pass the exam.

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latest updated Oracle 1z0-071 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true regarding constraints? (Choose two)
A. A constraint is enforced only for an INSERT operation on a table.
B. A foreign key cannot contain NULL values.
C. A column with the UNIQUE constraint can store NULLS.
D. You can have more than one column in a table as part of a primary key.
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true regarding the default behavior of the ORDER BY clause?
A. In a character sort, the values are case-sensitive.
B. NULL values are not considered at all by the sort operation.
C. Only those columns that are specified in the SELECT list can be used in the ORDER BY clause.
D. Numeric values are displayed from the maximum to the minimum value if they have decimal positions.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which two are SQL features? (Choose two.)
A. processing sets of data
B. providing update capabilities for data in external files
C. providing graphical capabilities
D. providing variable definition capabilities
E. providing database transaction control
Correct Answer: AE
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/TGSQL/tgsql_sqlproc.htm#TGSQL175
https://www.tutorialspoint.com/sql/sql-transactions.htm

 

QUESTION 4
Evaluate the following CREATE SEQUENCE statement: CREATE SEQUENCE seq1
START WITH 100 INCREMENT BY 10 MAXVALUE 200 CYCLE NOCACHE;
The sequence SEQ1 has generated numbers up to the maximum limit of 200. You issue the following SQL statement:
SELECT seq1.nextval FROM dual;
What is displayed by the SELECT statement?
A. 100
B. an error
C. 10
D. 1
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
View the exhibits and examine the structures of the COSTS and PROMOTIONS tables.[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-071 exam questions q5

Evaluate the following SQL statement:

[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-071 exam questions q5-1

What would be the outcome of the above SQL statement?
A. It displays prod IDs in the promo with the lowest cost.
B. It displays prod IDs in the promos with the lowest cost in the same time interval.
C. It displays prod IDs in the promos with the highest cost in the same time interval.
D. It displays prod IDs in the promos which cost less than the highest cost in the same time interval.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true regarding multiple-row subqueries? (Choose two.)
A. They can contain group functions.
B. They always contain a subquery within a subquery.
C. They use the
D. They can be used to retrieve multiple rows from a single table only.
E. They should not be used with the NOT IN operator in the main query if NULL is likely to be a part of the result of the
subquery.
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true about INTERVAL data types?
A. The YEAR field in an INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH column must be a positive value.
B. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND columns support fractions of seconds.
C. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns only support monthly intervals within a single year.
D. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns supports yearly intervals.
E. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns only support monthly intervals within a range of years.
F. The value in an INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND column can be copied into an INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH column.
Correct Answer: BE
Reference: https://www.oracletutorial.com/oracle-basics/oracle-interval/

 

QUESTION 8
View the exhibit and examine the structures of the EMPLOYEES and DEPARTMENTS tables.[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-071 exam questions q8

You want to update the EMPLOYEES table as follows:
Update only those employees who work in Boston or Seattle (locations 2900 and 2700).
Set department_id for these employees to the department_id corresponding to London (location_id 2100).
Set the employees\\’ salary in location_id 2100 to 1.1 times the average salary of their department.
Set the employees\\’ commission in location_id 2100 to 1.5 times the average commission of their department.
You issue the following command:

[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-071 exam questions q8-1

What is the outcome?
A. It generates an error because multiple columns (SALARY, COMMISSION) cannot be specified together in an
UPDATE statement.
B. It generates an error because a subquery cannot have a join condition in an UPDATE statement.
C. It executes successfully and gives the desired update
D. It executes successfully but does not give the desired update
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Examine the description of the EMPLOYEES table:[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-071 exam questions q9

Examine this query:

[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-071 exam questions q9-1

Which line produces an error?
A. Line 5
B. Line 8
C. Line 7
D. Line 3
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
The PRODUCTS table has the following structure.[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-071 exam questions q10

Evaluate the following two SQL statements:
SQL>SELECT prod_id, NVL2 (prod_expiry_date, prod_expiry_date + 15, ` `) FROM products;
SQL>SELECT prod_id, NVL (prod_expiry_date, prod_expiry_date + 15) FROM products;
Which statement is true regarding the outcome?
A. Both the statements execute and give different results
B. Only the second SQL statement executes successfully
C. Both the statements execute and give the same result
D. Only the first SQL statement executes successfully
Correct Answer: A
Using the NVL2 Function The NVL2 function examines the first expression. If the first expression is not null, the NVL2 function returns the second expression. If the first expression is null, the third expression is returned. Syntax
NVL2(expr1, expr2, expr3) In the syntax: Expr1 is the source value or expression that may contain a null Expr2 is the value that is returned if expr1 is not null Expr3 is the value that is returned if expr1 is null

 

QUESTION 11
View the Exhibits and examine the structure of the COSTS and PROMOTIONS tables.
You want to display PROD_IDS whose promotion cost is less than the highest cost PROD_ID in a promotion time
interval.
Examine these SQL statements: What will be the result? Exhibit 1.[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-071 exam questions q11

Exhibit 2.

[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-071 exam questions q11-1

A. It gives an error because the GROUP BY clause is not valid
B. It executes successfully but does not give the required result
C. It executes successfully and gives the required result
D. It gives an error because the ALL keyword is not valid
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Examine the description of the PRODUCT_STATUS table:[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-071 exam questions q12

The STATUS column contains the values `IN STOCK\\’ or `OUT OF STOCK\\’ for each row. Which two queries will
execute successfully?

[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-071 exam questions q12-1

A. B. C. D. E. F.
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 13
Examine the structure of the BOOKS_TRANSACTIONS table:[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-071 exam questions q13

You want to display the member IDs, due date, and late fee as $2 for all transactions. Which SQL statement must you
execute?
A. SELECT member_id AS MEMBER_ID, due_date AS DUE_DATE, $2 AS LATE_FEE FROM
BOOKS_TRANSACTIONS;
B. SELECT member_id \\’MEMBER ID\\’, due_date \\’DUE DATE\\’, \\’$2 AS LATE FEE\\’ FROM
BOOKS_TRANSACTIONS;
C. SELECT member_id AS “MEMBER ID”, due_date AS “DUE DATE”, \\’$2\\’ AS “LATE FEE” FROM
BOOKS_TRANSACTIONS;
D. SELECT member_id AS “MEMBER ID”, due_date AS “DUE DATE”, $2 AS “LATE FEE” FROM
BOOKS_TRANSACTIONS;
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which two files must you copy from the Oracle home of the database that is being upgraded to the new Oracle home for
Oracle Database 12c? (Choose three.)
A. the tnsnames.ora file
B. the sqlnet.ora file
C. the initialization parameter file
D. the password file
E. the listener.ora file
Correct Answer: ABE
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e23633/afterup.htm#UPGRD52747

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about Enterprise Manager (EM) express in Oracle Database 12c?
A. By default, EM express is available for a database after database creation.
B. You can use EM express to manage multiple databases running on the same server.
C. You can perform basic administrative tasks for pluggable databases by using the EM express interface.
D. You cannot start-up or shut down a database Instance by using EM express.
E. You can create and configure pluggable databases by using EM express.
Correct Answer: D
References: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/manageability/emx-intro-1965965.html

 

QUESTION 3
Which four statements are true about the components of the Oracle Scheduler? (Choose four.)
A. A schedule can be specified for a single job only.
B. A scheduler job can point to a chain instead of pointing to a single program object.
C. A job may get started automatically when a window opens.
D. A program and job can be specified as part of a schedule definition.
E. A job is specified as part of a program specification.
F. A program can be used in the definition of multiple jobs.
G. A program and schedule can be specified as part of a job definition.
Correct Answer: BCFG
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14231/schedover.htm

 

QUESTION 4
Identify three scenarios in which you would recommend the use of SQL Performance Analyzer to analyze the impact on the
performance of SQL statements.
A. Change in the Oracle Database version
B. Change in your network infrastructure
C. Change in the hardware configuration of the database server
D. Migration of database storage from non-ASM to ASM storage
E. Database and operating system upgrade
Correct Answer: ACE
Oracle 11g/12c makes further use of SQL tuning sets with the SQL Performance Analyzer, which compares the
performance of the statements in a tuning set before and after a database change. The database change can be as
major or minor as you like, such as:
*
(E) Database, operating system, or hardware upgrades.
*
(A, C) Database, operating system, or hardware configuration changes.
*
Database initialization parameter changes.
*
Schema changes, such as adding indexes or materialized views.
*
Refreshing optimizer statistics.
*
Creating or changing SQL profiles.


QUESTION 5
You configured the Fast Recovery Area (FRA) for your database. The database instance is in ARCHIVELOG mode. The
default location for the archived redo log files is the FRA.
Which two files are removed automatically if space is required in the FRA as per the retention policy? (Choose two.)
A. Archived redo log files that have multiple copies in a different archive location
B. user-managed backups of data files and control files
C. RMAN backups that are obsolete
D. flashback logs
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 6
Examine the details of the Top 5 Timed Events in the following Automatic Workloads Repository (AWR) report:[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-062 exam questions q6

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A. The size of the shared pool is too small.
B. Cursors are not being shared.
C. A large number of COMMITS is being performed.
D. There is frequent logons and logoffs.
E. The buffers are being read into the buffer cache, but some other session is changing the buffers.
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 7
You Execute the Following command to create a password file in the database server:
$ orapwd file = `+DATA/PROD/orapwprod entries = 5 ignorecase = N format = 12\\’
Which two statements are true about the password file? (Choose two.)
A. It records the usernames and passwords of users when granted the DBA role.
B. It contains the usernames and passwords of users for whom auditing is enabled.
C. Is used by Oracle to authenticate users for remote database administration.
D. It records the usernames and passwords of all users when they are added to the OSDBA or OSOPER operating
system groups.
E. It supports the SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM system privileges.
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 8
The user SCOTT owns the CUST table that is placed in the SALES tablespace. The user SCOTT opens a session and
executes commands as follows:
SQL> INSERT INTO cust VALUES(101, \\’JACK\\’);
1 row created.
SQL> INSERT INTO cust VALUES(102, \\’SMITH\\’);
1 row created.
As a DBA, you execute the following command from another session:
ALTER TABLESPACE sales READ ONLY;
Which statement is true regarding the effect of this command on the transaction in Scott\\’s session?
A. The command fails as a transaction is still pending.
B. The transaction in Scott\\’s session is rolled back and the tablespace becomes read-only.
C. The command waits and the user SCOTT can execute data manipulation language (DML) statements only as part of
the current transaction.
D. The command hangs until all transactions on the objects in the tablespace commit or rollback, and then the
a tablespace is placed in read-only mode.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
You want to distribute a set of structured data to your customers who can integrate this data into their existing
databases irrespective of the platform.
Which method provides the fastest way of achieving this?
A. using the DBVERIFY utility
B. using direct-path INSERT SQL statements
C. using SQL*Loader
D. using RMAN transportable tablespace operation
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
You are planning the creation of a new multitenant container database (CDB) and want to store the ROOT and SEED
container data files in separate directories.
You plan to create the database using SQL statements.
Which three techniques can you use to achieve this? (Choose three.)
A. Use Oracle Managed Files (OMF).
B. Specify the SEED FILE_NAME_CONVERT clause.
C. Specify the PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT initialization parameter.
D. Specify the DB_FILE_NAMECONVERT initialization parameter.
E. Specify all files in the CREATE DATABASE statement without using Oracle managed Files (OMF).
Correct Answer: ABC
You must specify the names and locations of the seed\\’s files in one of the following ways:
*
(A) Oracle Managed Files
*
(B) The SEED FILE_NAME_CONVERT Clause
*
(C) The PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT Initialization Parameter

 

QUESTION 11
In which three situations can you use threshold server-generated alerts to help diagnose and fix problems? (Choose
three.)
A. when free space in a locally managed tablespace falls below a specified percentage
B. when the number of logons per second exceeds a specific value
C. when a resumable statement is suspended
D. when the total number of locked user account exceeds a specific value
E. when the total number of logons exceeds a specific value
F. when free space in a dictionary managed tablespace falls below a specified percentage
Correct Answer: ABC
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/monitoring001.htm
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/schema001.htm

 

QUESTION 12
In your production database, data manipulation language (DML) operations are executed on the SALES table.
You have noticed some dubious values in the SALES table during the last few days. You are able to track users, actions
taken, and the time of the action for this particular period but the changes in data are not tracked. You decide to keep
track of both the old data and new data in the table long with the user information.
What action would you take to achieve this task?
A. Apply fine-grained auditing.
B. Implement value-based auditing.
C. Impose standard database auditing to audit object privileges.
D. Impose standard database auditing to audit SQL statements.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Your multitenant container (CDB) containing three pluggable databases (PDBs) is running in ARCHIVELOG mode. You
find that the SYSAUX tablespace is corrupted in the root container.
The steps to recover the tablespace are as follows:
1.
Mount the CDB.
2.
Close all the PDBs.
3.
Open the database.
4.
Apply the archive redo logs.
5.
Restore the data file.
6.
Take the SYSAUX tablespace offline.
7.
Place the SYSAUX tablespace online.
8.
Open all the PDBs with RESETLOGS.
9.
Open the database with RESETLOGS.
10.
Execute the command SHUTDOWN ABORT.
Which option identifies the correct sequence to recover the SYSAUX tablespace?
A. 6, 5, 4, 7
B. 10, 1, 2, 5, 8
C. 10, 1, 2, 5, 4, 9, 8
D. 10, 1, 5, 8, 10
Correct Answer: A
RMAN> ALTER TABLESPACE sysaux OFFLINE IMMEDIATE;
RMAN> RESTORE TABLESPACE sysaux;
RMAN> RECOVER TABLESPACE sysaux;
RMAN> ALTER TABLESPACE sysaux ONLINE;
*
Example:
While evaluating the 12c beta3 I was not able to do the recover while testing “all PDB files lost”.
Cannot close the PDB as the system datafile was missing…
So the only option to recover was:
Shutdown cdb (10)
startup mount; (1)
restore pluggable database
recover pluggable database
alter database open;
alter pluggable database name open;
Oracle support says: You should be able to close the PDB and restore/recover the system tablespace of PDB.
*
Inconsistent backups are usually created by taking online database backups. You can also make an inconsistent
backup by backing up data files while a database is closed, either:
/ Immediately after the crash of an Oracle instance (or, in an Oracle RAC configuration, all instances)
/ After shutting down the database using SHUTDOWN ABORT
Inconsistent backups are only useful if the database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and all archived redo logs created since
the backup is available.
*
Open the database with the RESETLOGS option after finishing recovery: SQL> ALTER DATABASE OPEN
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QUESTION 1
A customer has a requirement for a new solution to handle their growing storage requirements. The solution should
have the ability to cover storage needs for the next three years. The environment consists of 100 TBs of file system data
spread across five file systems. On average, the file systems grow 1 TB a month. In addition, they have a large VMware
cluster supporting 200 VMs and a highly transactional database.
The customer wants the solution to offer good performance, scalability, manageability, and be cost-effective. The sales
team is looking to you to recommend a solution.
Which recommendation will meet the customer\\’s requirements?
A. VNX for DB and VMware workloads, and Isilon for file system data
B. Isilon scale-out and cluster as required
C. VNX Unified platform with FAST Cache
D. VMAX with FAST VP and a NAS Gateway
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
You have 1000 users for an application that reads and writes files averaging between one and four MB in size. Each
user requires 24 MB of RAM. You want to add another 1000 users for this application, and in preparation for them, you
run the isi statistics command. You discover that the average CPU utilization is 20%; aggregate throughput averages
700 MB/s and the disk QueueD average is 1.5. Your cluster currently has five X200 (12 GB RAM, 1 TB drive) nodes,
uses N +2:1 protection and 1 GigE networking.
What should you do to accommodate the next 1000 users?
A. Add five additional X200 (12 GB, 1 TB drive) nodes
B. Upgrade each X200 node to a total of 24 GB of RAM.
C. Upgrade two of the 1 GigE NICs to 10 GigE on each node.
D. Add five A100 (24 GB RAM) accelerator nodes.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
When creating a FilePool policy via the OneFS WebUI, what is the maximum allowed number of condition blocks?
B. 3
C. 8
D. No limit
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
A customer is considering the use of RBAC to centrally administer user accounts that can log into multiple Isilon
clusters. What is a potential capability for the customer?
A. Assign users only custom roles with privileges to perform specific administrative tasks
B. Assign individual privileges for specific administrative tasks directly to user accounts
C. Assign users built-in or custom roles with privileges to perform specific administrative tasks
D. Assign users only built-in roles with privileges to perform specific administrative tasks
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
When designing a SmartConnect IP pool, what is the recommended IP address pool allocation method and protocol
state for SMB?
A. Dynamic, stateful
B. Static, stateless
C. Dynamic, stateless
D. Static, stateful
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.dellemc.com/resources/en-us/asset/white-papers/products/storage/h16463-isilon-advancednetworking-fundamentals.pdf

 

QUESTION 6
On an Isilon cluster, how much space should be reserved for snapshots by default?
A. 0%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
A cost-conscious customer is exploring Isilon for their PACS archive. The workflow consists of one hundred cases a
day, each including fifty 60MB image files. However, each image will have five-hundred 64kB metadata files associated
with it. They currently have six years worth of archived data. They will need to migrate to the new solution and they need
to plan for an additional three years of archive capacity.
Which solution would you recommend to fit their capacity needs?
A. 24 NL-Series nodes with N+3 protection policy providing 2597 TiB of useable capacity
B. 18 NL-Series nodes with N+2:1 protection policy providing 2078 TiB of useable capacity
C. 24 X-Series nodes with N+3 protection policy providing 2597 TiB of useable capacity
D. 12 NL-Series nodes with N+2 protection policy providing 1300 TiB of useable capacity
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Which provider supports authentication and lookup facilities for local users and groups that have been defined and are
maintained on the cluster?
A. AD
B. File
C. NIS
D. Local
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
A customer has a cluster of 16 A200 nodes. Due to recent and forecasted growth, they have decided to expand the
cluster by an additional 24 A200 nodes. How many neighborhoods will exist on the cluster when all nodes have joined
the cluster?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Correct Answer: A
Neighborhoods split at 20 nodes. So it already had 2 neighborhoods. With the addition of 24 nodes, it will have 3
neighborhoods in total.


QUESTION 10
An Isilon customer created a scheduled SyncIQ policy to replicate data from an Enterprise-mode SmartLock directory.
The source cluster is now unusable and the target cluster does not automatically allow writes to the data in the
replicated SmartLock directory.
What is the reason why the target cluster did not automatically allow writes of the data?
A. SyncIQ Automated failover is not supported for SmartLock directories; however, manual failover is allowed.
B. Automated failover and manual failover are not allowed on SmartLock directories on the target cluster.
C. A SyncIQ job was running while the source cluster became unusable, thereby removing all data on the target
directory.
D. SnapshotIQ was not licensed on the target cluster; the snapshot of the directory is not available for use by SyncIQ.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
A customer plans to replace an existing array that is supported by the MiTrend Workload Profile Assessment (WPA)
service. You receive performance data from the customer and run a WPA report that shows the array has 50TB of
usable capacity.
In discussions with the customer, you learn the content is comprised of four million 6MB files and 400 million 64KB files.
The customer explains they have a small budget and very limited rack space available in their datacenter. Performance
is not a concern because the files are rarely accessed.
Which configuration provides the needed usable capacity using N+2:1 protection, and requires the least amount of rack
space?
A. 3 x NL400 nodes with 2TB Drives
B. 3 x X400 nodes with 1TB Drives
C. 5 x X200 nodes with 1TB Drives D. 6 x X200 nodes with 1TB Drives
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
A company wants to reduce its footprint in its data center. They recently completed a proof of concept with Hadoop
using Direct Attached Storage (DAS) for their Big Data initiative. You have determined that incorporating an Isilon
cluster into their Hadoop environment would help in reducing this footprint.
Which Hadoop components can be consolidated onto the Isilon cluster to reduce the footprint?
A. DataNode and NameNode
B. DataNode and ComputeNode
C. ComputeNode and NameNode
D. NameNode and TaskTracker
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
A customer is running OneFS 8.0 on an Isilon cluster consisting exclusively of NL400 nodes. The storage administrator
recently heard that OneFS 8.1 provides journal vaulting. What should you advise the storage administrator?
A. Replace the batteries of the battery-backed volatile storage with NiMH batteries.
B. Add SSDs to all nodes of the existing cluster and upgrade to OneFS 8.1.
C. Migrate all data from the current Isilon cluster to a Gen 6 cluster.
D. Add a Gen 6 node to the existing Isilon cluster and upgrade to OneFS 8.1.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
When deploying virtual disks for a UnityVSA system, what is an EMC recommended Disk Provision Policy?
A. Thick Provision Eager Zeroed
B. Thin Provision
C. Thick Provision
D. Thick Provision Lazy Zeroed
Correct Answer: A
EMC recommends the following settings for all virtual disks:
Disk Provisioning: Thick Provision Eager Zeroed.
Location: A different datastore than the VM.

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass e20-393 exam question q2

Which port is used to connect the DPE to a DAE?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.emc.com/collateral/TechnicalDocument/docu69318.pdf

 

QUESTION 3
The cache has sent data to the Data Reduction logic during proactive cleaning or flushing. What is the correct sequence
of steps taken by the Data Reduction logic?
Select and Place:lead4pass e20-393 exam question q3

 

QUESTION 4
What is the function of CloudIQ?
A. Tier to cloud storage
B. Provision storage resources
C. Configure host access
D. Monitor system health
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.emc.com/collateral/white-papers/h15691-emc-cloudiq-overview.pdf

 

QUESTION 5
Which storage access configuration is unique to VMware Datastores?
A. Host IO burst policy
B. vCenter Server
C. IP Multi-tenancy
D. Auto formatting
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
In Unisphere, where can a storage administrator create an asynchronous LUN replication session?
A. LUN Properties window only
B. Replication page only
C. Replication page or the LUN Properties window
D. LUN Creation wizard or the LUN Properties window
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Two fans have failed on the SPE. How much time does the Dell EMC Unity system allow before the SP is shut down?
A. 2 min
B. 3 min
C. 4 min
D. 5 min
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
What pathing options are supported by Dell EMC Unity XT systems to provide a host with Fibre Channel access to block
storage?
A. Single Path, Multipath, and Alternate Path
B. Single Path and Multipath only
C. Multipath only
D. Single Path only
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.dellemc.com/zh-tw/collaterals/unauth/technical-guides-supportinformation/products/storage/docu69325.pdf

 

QUESTION 9
Which storage objects support Advanced Deduplication?
A. VMFS datastores and VVols
B. Thin LUNs and thick LUNs
C. Thick LUNs and VVols
D. Thin LUNs and thin VMFS datastores
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
When creating a NAS Server replication session, which settings are required for the destination NAS Server?
A. Name, Pool, and Storage Provisioning
B. Interface configuration, Pool, and Storage Processor
C. Pool, RPO, and Storage Processor
D. Name, interface configuration, and RPO
Correct Answer: A
References: https://www.emc.com/dam/uwaem/documentation/unity-p-replication-config.pdf
(30)

 

QUESTION 11
A storage administrator is considering adding another application to run on their Unity 300 but they are concerned about
the application\\’s performance. They ask what is considered “normal” for CPU utilization. Based on Dell EMC best
practices, what should be your response?
A. Below 50%
B. 50% – 70%
C. 70% – 90%
D. 90% – 95%
Correct Answer: B
References: https://www.emc.com/collateral/white-papers/h15093-dell-emc-unity-best-practices-guide.pdf
(p.9)

 

QUESTION 12
Which step must be completed prior to performing the initial configuration of a UnityVSA system and creating the first
storage pool?
A. Create an ESXi host profile
B. License the system for NFS and SMB support
C. Add vDisks to the storage appliance
D. Install license keys for thin provisioning
Correct Answer: C
UNITY VSA STORAGE POOL CREATION
1.
Under the Storage, Pool Section go to Pools. Select the + to start the “Create Pool Wizard”.
2.
Name the Pool
3.
Assign a Tier to each Virtual Disk attached to the VSA. You have Extreme, Performance, and Capacity.lead4pass e20-393 exam question q12

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References: https://samshouseblog.com/2016/06/08/unity-vsa-storage-pool-creation/

 

QUESTION 13
What block size do Dell EMC Unity systems use to copy highly accessed blocks of data from spinning drives into FAST
Cache?
A. 16 KB
B. 32 KB
C. 64 KB
D. 128 KB
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.emc.com/collateral/white-papers/h15086-emc-unity-fast-technology-overview.pdf (2)

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QUESTION 1
You are a transport administrator for an AS ABAP-based SAP system landscape. In the import queue of a single SAP
system, you select multiple transport requests to be imported together. What happens when these transport requests
are
imported?
There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Response:
A. If an object is included in more than one transport request, only the version in the last transport request is
activated/generated (according to the sequence in the import queue).
B. If an object is included in more than one transport request, it is first stored in the shadow repository. You can then
activate/generate selected versions from the shadow repository later.
C. If an object is included in more than one transport request, you can specify which object version will be
activated/generated using unconditional (import) modes.
D. The objects in the first transport request are imported and activated/generated first, then the objects in the second
transport request, and so on.
E. All objects in all the selected transport requests are merged together
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 2
Using SAPDOCCD.ini, you have several options for changing the way online documentation is accessed. Which of the
following statements are true? There are 3 correct answers to this question. Response:
A. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the user ID (in the SAP system) of the user
calling help.
B. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the logon language (in the SAP system) of
the user calling help.
C. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the release of the SAP system from which
help is being called.
D. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the SID (System ID) of the SAP system
from which help is being called.
Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 3
You are running a system landscape of AS ABAP-based SAP systems. Which options do you have for selecting
transport requests to be imported? There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. You can select a single transport request for import.
B. You can filter transport requests for a certain project and import them together in one step (if you have activated the
CTS functions in transaction SPRO_ADMIN [Customizing: Project Administration]).
C. You can select several individual transport requests to be imported in one step.
D. You can select a single transport request and import it into multiple SAP systems in one step.
E. You can select all transport requests for import that contain objects of a selected package.
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 4
You have to import several transport requests into an AS ABAP-based SAP system using transaction STMS (Transport
Management System). In the import queue of one of the SAP systems the “Import Request” (Import Single) button is
displayed, but the “Import All Requests” (Import All) button is missing.
What could be the reason?
A. The “Import All Requests” button is never available in a development system.
B. The “Queue-controlled transports, single transports” strategy has been set.
C. The authorization for “Import All Requests” is missing for the respective SAP system.
D. Client-specific transport routes have been configured.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is true when creating new clients within an SAP System based on AS ABAP (for example, SAP
ECC)?
A. Log files indicating the success of a new client creation are stored in the home directory of the user initiating the
copy.
B. Customizing and repository objects from a source client are automatically copied to the new client using the client
copy tool.
C. The client transport tool can be used to transfer the same source client, simultaneously, from one SAP System to
multiple other SAP systems in a single action.
D. The client copy can be accelerated by using several dialog work processes in parallel.
E. Remote client copies generate large data files at the operating system level.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Oracle database offers different types of indexes. Which are valid index types? There are 2 correct answers to this
question.
A. Bitmap index
B. Unique master index
C. Dictionary index
D. Balanced tree (B*tree) index
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 7
You are maintaining User Management Engine (UME) principles using the Identity Management tool of an AS Javabased SAP system. To which of the following can you directly assign a UME group? There are 2 correct answers to this
question.
A. JEE security roles
B. UME actions
C. Java users
D. UME roles
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 8
Which statement is correct for both of the tools Config Tool and Visual Administrator? Please choose the correct
answer.
A. All configuration settings require a restart of the system.
B. Only configuration settings made globally require a restart of the system.
C. You have the possibility to maintain configuration settings globally, for all dispatcher nodes of the system at once, or
locally for each specific node.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which types of dialog instances can be installed to an SAP system, depending on the SAP system type? Choose the
correct answer(s).
A. AS ABAP dialog instance
B. Central services dialog instance
C. AS Java dialog instance
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 10
Your customer is configuring a Central User Administration (CUA) in AS ABAP connecting to multiple child systems.
Changes of the attribute “mobile telephone number” in the user master record in one child system should be transferred
to the other relevant child systems. Which setting for the attribute “mobile telephone number” in parameters for field
distribution via transaction SCUM (Central User Administration) do you use to fulfill this requirement? Please choose the
correct answer.
A. Global
B. Redistribution
C. Everywhere
D. Local
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
While you set up an operation mode and work process distribution screen, for which work processes can you increase
the number by 1 without decreasing any others? There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Reserved work processes
B. Spool work processes
C. Enqueue work processes
D. Dialog work processes
E. Update work processes
Correct Answer: ADE

 

QUESTION 12
Which SAP products use SAP NetWeaver? There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. SAP R/3 4.6C
B. SAP CRM
C. SAP Business All-In-One
D. SAP ERP
Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 13
Which statement regarding Local Printing with SAP NetWeaver AS ABAP is correct? Please choose the correct answer
A. If you want to configure Local Printing for an output device, you have to choose access method L or C, depending on
the operating system.
B. If you want to configure Local Printing for an output device, you have to choose access method L for any operating
system.
C. If you want to configure Local Printing for an output device, you have to choose access method U for UNIX operating
systems.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which Default User Role, other than the Admin User, has the ability to import prospects?
A. Sales User
B. Sales Manager
C. Marketing User
D. Root User
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
What\\’s involved in the technical set up?
A. Implement Tracking Code
B. Add Tracker Domain
C. Implement DKIM and SPF
D. Whitelist Sending IP
E. All
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 3
What activities can be done in Pardot\\’s engagement program? [Choose one answer]
A. Trigger, action and rule
B. Trigger, activity and rule
C. Trigger, activity and check
D. Trigger, listen and check
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Describe the limitations the Salesforce connector has with a Salesforce Sandbox Account:
A. Only one CRM Connector at a time
B. You can only access leads with the Salesforce Sandbox Account
C. You can only install the sandbox with a Pardot Training Environment
D. Can\\’t wipe or delete data from Pardot. Will remain in the recycle bin.
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 5
What must happen in order for a newly created lead record in Salesforce to be created in Pardot immediately? (Choose
two answers.)
A. Salesforce connector has sync all setting turned on
B. Lead record has a prospect ID at the time of creation
C. Lead record has an email address at the time of creation
D. Salesforce connector set to automatically create prospects
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 6
What does the calendar view on the dashboard display?
A. Scheduled emails and past emails
B. Scheduled emails
C. Scheduled and past emails, events and webinars
D. Scheduled and past emails, social posts, events and webinars
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
You can create/sync custom objects from which tab in the navigation menu?
A. Marketing
B. Prospects
C. Reports
D. Admin
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
When mapping fields between Pardot and Salesforce how can you control the synchronization? [Choose one answer]
A. Use Salesforce\\’s value
B. Use Pardot\\’s value
C. Use the most recently updated record
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Pardot offers four default user roles. They are:
A. Admin, Marketing User, Sales Manager, Sales User
B. System Administrator, Developer, Sales Manager, Sales User
C. Admin, Marketing User, Partner User, Sales User
D. Developer, Marketing User, Sales Manager, Sales User
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
How can you delete a prospect?
A. Through a completion action.
B. Through an automation rule.
C. You can\\’t delete prospects.
D. Through the prospect table actions.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
What is true about grading? [Choose two answers]
A. A prospect can be associated to multiple profiles.
B. You cannot change the default profile criteria
C. Matching or unmatching a criteria will result in an increase or decrease of the grade by , or 3/3 of a grade.
D. All prospects start with a grade of D.
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 12
A new visitor lands on a page with a Pardot campaign that is set to “Website Tracking.” The visitor then fills out a form
with a Pardot campaign set to “Contact Us.” which Pardot campaign will be associated with the visitor once they convert
by submitting the form?
A. “Contact Us”
B. There will be no campaign assigned since the visitor is unknown.
C. Both “website Tracking” and “Contact Us”
D. “Website Tracking”
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
In order for the Salesforce connector to verify, what does the connector user need to enter?
A. The Administrator\\’s Pardot credential
B. The Administrator\\’s Salesforce credential
C. The connector user\\’s Salesforce credential
D. The connector user\\’s Pardot credential
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
The coffee company sells products for coffee shops and consumers. The company is planning to launch a Community
and has the following goals:
-Go to market quickly
-Generate online revenue rapidly
-Work with a mobile-ready storefront
How should the Community Cloud consultant meet these goals? Select one or more of the following:
A. Use build your own lightning template
B. Use custom lightning components
C. Use a Visualforce page lightning component
D. Use B2B commerce for community cloud
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Universal Containers (UC) has rolled out a Customer Community where customers can ask and answer questions. UC
wants to ensure that customer questions are answered in a timely manner.
How can the Administrator meet this requirement?
Select one or more of the following:
A. Enable Knowledge and Articles
B. Enable Entitlement and Milestone
C. Enable Case Escalation rules
D. Enable question-to-case functionality
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Universal Containers recently rolled out a Community to their partners.
The internal sales team has the following requirements for internal users:

Ability to support the addition of 50 new partners every month.

Ability to pass leads to the partners.
-Continue to have access to the leads after transfer to partners.
-Access to the opportunity when the partner converts the lead.
-Leads should be visible to only the partner who is working on the lead; other partners should NOT have access to the
lead.
Which sharing option should the Salesforce Admin choose to meet the requirement for internal users?
A. Create a sharing rule to share leads and opportunities to internal users.
B. Use sharing sets to share leads and opportunities to internal users.
C. Create a public group and include partners and share records with the public group using sharing rules.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
Northern Trail Outfitters uses Knowledge Articles to address customer questions in their Customer Service (Napili)
Template-based Community. They need to know if these Articles are helpful to customers when they search for help in
the Community.
What is the most efficient way for a Salesforce Admin to get this information from customers?
A. Redirect customers to a survey form on an external website that captures their comments on the Knowledge Article.
B. Create a customer survey using custom Lightning components and add it to the homepage.
C. Build a custom Community page that shows the Knowledge Article and have custom fields to capture customer
comments.
D. Enable the article voting property on the Article Content component in the article detail page in
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Universal Containers sets up and publishes a Community. What three things should a Salesforce Admin do to log into
the Community and validate the Community features? Choose 3 answers
A. Select a Customer user record and select the Login option.
B. Choose Login to the Community as a user from the contact record in Salesforce.
C. Select the Community from the App Launcher as an internal user.
D. Log in as a customer to the Community with a Test customer login.
E. Preview the Community as a specific Community user in the preview mode of the Community builder.
Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 6
It\\’s been a long and exciting week of developing your new Customer Community, so exciting in fact you just removed
the Administrator profile from the Selected Community Profiles and can no longer access the Community. What should
you do next?
A. Create a case with Salesforce support
B. Disable the community and reactivate it as this automatically adds the Administrator Profile
C. Perform Community Membership updates using the API
D. Go into Setup >> Community Settings and Select >> Apply default access settings
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Universal Containers needs to announce their upcoming Annual Conference to all members of their Customer
Community. In which two ways should this be set up? Choose 2 answers.
A. In the Community Workspaces, target all Recommendations to a new Audience Type.
B. In Community Builder, add the Featured Recommendations Component to the page.
C. In the Community Workspaces, create the Recommendation.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
What are the four stages of the Community Roll-out framework?
A. Plan > Develop > Test > Review
B. Design > Implement > Grow > Review
C. Create > Communicate > Design > Implement
D. Analyse > Design > Implement > Maintain
E. Establish > Manage > Measure > Engage
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 9
Universal Containers create a Community for their partners. Members of the Community should not be able to
participate in discussions with other members. However, users from the same partner should be able to hold
discussions amongst themselves. How should the Salesforce Admin meet this requirement?
A. Deselect Community User Visibility under Sharing Settings
B. Update the Internal User record to Private under Sharing Settings
C. Create a sharing group for partner accounts under Sharing Settings
D. Turn off Portal User Visibility under Sharing Settings
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
Universal Containers (UC) recently built a community for its customers. UC stores customer invoices outside of
Salesforce. UC wants to allow customers to be able to search for and view the invoices immediately after creation.
Which
Salesforce feature should the Community Cloud consultant recommend?
Select one or more of the following:
A. Files connect
B. External services
C. File sync
D. Chatter and files
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
What do you recommend? Universal Containers have launched their Customer Community on the Koa template.
Community members have asked your advice for accessing the community on iOS devices.
A. IOS users should download the Salesforce1 app and access the community through the Salesforce1 switcher.
B. Navigate to the community URL in the browser and a mobile experience will be automatically rendered.
C. IOS users should download the OneCommunity app where they can use their regular community login credentials to
access the Community.
D. All users should access a Koa Community via a Desktop browser only.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Universal Containers uses Community to grant customers secure access to their accounts, orders, and invoices. All
customers are on a Customer Community License. Universal Containers needs to grant a subset of their customers,
known as affiliates, access to other customer Accounts. How should a Salesforce Admin fulfill these requirements?
A. Leverage the Account team to grant affiliates access to the Account.
B. Use Apex without sharing to control affiliates\\’ access to the Account.
C. Create a public group for affiliates and grant Account access using sharing rules.
D. Add a Sharing Set on the Account associated with the Affiliate profile.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
Universal Containers is launching a Community with the following requirements:
-Branding requirement is limited to logo and font.
-Configurable Navigation with the option to navigate to custom objects and records.
-Access to articles is limited per Date Category Visibility.
Which template should the Salesforce Admin use to build this Community that will natively support these capabilities?
A. Kokua
B. Koa
C. Customer Service (Napili)
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
An organization is considering whether to allow employees to use personal computing devices for business purposes.
To BEST facilitate senior management\\’s decision, the information security manager should:
A. perform a cost-benefit analysis
B. map the strategy to business objectives
C. conduct a risk assessment
D. develop a business case
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following would prevent unauthorized changes to information stored in a server\\’s log?
A. Write-protecting the directory containing the system log
B. Writing a duplicate log to another server
C. Daily printing of the system log
D. Storing the system log in write-once media
Correct Answer: D
Storing the system log in write-once media ensures the log cannot be modified. Write- protecting the system log does
not prevent deletion or modification, since the superuser or users that have special permission can override the write
protection. Writing a duplicate log to another server or daily printing of the system log cannot prevent unauthorized
changes.

 

QUESTION 3
An IS auditor is reviewing a project to implement a payment system between a parent bank and a subsidiary. The IS
auditor should FIRST verify that the:
A. technical platforms between the two companies are interoperable.
B. parent bank is authorized to serve as a service provider.
C. security features are in place to segregate subsidiary trades.
D. subsidiary can join as a co-owner of this payment system.
Correct Answer: B
Even between parent and subsidiary companies, contractual agreement(s) should be in place to conduct shared
services. This is particularly important in highly regulated organizations such as banking. Unless granted to serve as a
service provider, it may not be legal for the bank to extend business to the subsidiary companies. Technical aspects
should always be considered; however, this can be initiated after confirming that the parent bank can serve as a service
provider. Security aspects are another important factor; however, this should be considered after confirming that the
parent bank can serve as a service provider. The ownership of the payment system is not as important as the legal
authorization to operate the system.

 

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is the most important element in the design of a data warehouse?
A. Quality of the metadata
B. Speed of the transactions
C. Volatility of the data
D. Vulnerability of the system
Correct Answer: A
Quality of the metadata is the most important element in the design of a data warehouse. A data warehouse is a copy of
transaction data specifically structured for query and analysis. Metadata aim to provide a table of contents to the
information stored in the data warehouse. Companies that have built warehouses believe that metadata are the most
important component of the warehouse.

 

QUESTION 5
Talking about application system audit, focus should always be placed on (Choose five.)
A. performance and controls of the system
B. the ability to limit unauthorized access and manipulation
C. input of data are processed correctly
D. output of data are processed correctly
E. changes to the system are properly authorized
F. None of the choices.
Correct Answer: ABCDE
Talking about application system audit, focus should be placed on the performance and controls of the system, its ability
to limit unauthorized access and manipulation, that input and output of data are processed correctly on the system, that
any changes to the system are authorized, and that users have access to the system.

 

QUESTION 6
The information security policy that states \\’each individual must have their badge read at every controlled door\\’
addresses which of the following attack methods?
A. Piggybacking
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Dumpster diving
D. Impersonation
Correct Answer: A
Piggybacking refers to unauthorized persons following authorized persons, either physically or virtually, into restricted
areas. This policy addresses the polite behavior problem of holding doors open for a stranger, if every employee must
have their badge read at every controlled door no unauthorized person could enter the sensitive area. Looking over the
shoulder of a user to obtain sensitive information could be done by an unauthorized person who has gained access to
areas using piggybacking, but this policy specifically refers to physical access control. Shoulder surfing would not be
prevented by the implementation of this policy. Dumpster diving, looking through an organization\\’s trash for valuable
information, could be done outside the company\\’s physical perimeter; therefore, this policy would not address this
attack method. Impersonation refers to a social engineer acting as an employee, trying to retrieve the desired
information. Some forms of social engineering attacks could join an impersonation attack and piggybacking, but this
information security policy does not address the impersonation attack.

 

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an IS auditor to issue an interim audit report?
A. To avoid issuing a final audit report
B. To enable the auditor to complete the engagement in a timely manner
C. To provide feedback to the auditee for timely remediation
D. To provide follow-up opportunity during the audit
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
An organization has outsourced many application development activities to a third party that uses contract programmers
extensively. Which of the following would provide the BEST assurance that the third party\\’s contract programmers
comply with the organization\\’s security policies?
A. Perform periodic security assessments of the contractors\\’ activities.
B. Conduct periodic vulnerability scans of the application.
C. Include penalties for noncompliance in the contracting agreement.
D. Require annual signed agreements of adherence to security policies.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
With respect to the outsourcing of IT services, which of the following conditions should be of GREATEST concern to an
IS auditor?
A. Outsourced activities are core and provide a differentiated advantage to the organization.
B. Periodic renegotiation is specified in the outsourcing contract.
C. The outsourcing contract fails to cover every action required by the arrangement.
D. Similar activities are outsourced to more than one vendor.
Correct Answer: A
An organization\\’s core activities generally should not be outsourced, because they are what the organization does
best; an IS auditor observing that should be concerned. An IS auditor should not be concerned about the other
conditions because specification of periodic renegotiation in the outsourcing contract is a best practice. Outsourcing
contracts cannot be expected to cover every action and detail expected of the parties involved, while multisourcing is an
acceptable way to reduce risk.

 

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is an oft-cited cause of vulnerability of networks?
A. software monoculture
B. software diversification
C. single line of defense
D. multiple DMZ
E. None of the choices.
Correct Answer: A
An oft-cited cause of vulnerability of networks is homogeneity or software monoculture. In particular, Microsoft Windows
has such a large share of the market that concentrating on it will enable a cracker to subvert a large number of systems.
Introducing inhomogeneity purely for the sake of robustness would however bring high costs in terms of training and
maintenance.

 

QUESTION 11
Which of the following do digital signatures provide?
A. Authentication and integrity of data
B. Authentication and confidentiality of data
C. Confidentiality and integrity of data
D. Authentication and availability of data
Correct Answer: A
The primary purpose of digital signatures is to provide authentication and integrity of data.

 

QUESTION 12
During a follow-up audit, an IS auditor discovers that a recommendation has not been implemented. However, the
auditee has implemented a manual workaround that addresses the identified risk, through far less efficiency than the
recommended action would. Which of the following would be the auditor\\’s BEST course of action?
A. Notify management that the risk has been addressed and take no further action.
B. Escalate the remaining issue for further discussion and resolution.
C. Note that the risk has been addressed and notify management of the inefficiency.
D. Insist to management that the original recommendation be implemented.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
The ultimate purpose of IT governance is to:
A. encourage optimal use of IT.
B. reduce IT costs.
C. decentralize IT resources across the organization.
D. centralize control of IT.
Correct Answer: A
IT governance is intended to specify the combination of decision rights and accountability that is best for the enterprise.
It is different for every enterprise. Reducing IT costs may not be the best IT governance outcome for an enterprise.
Decentralizing IT resources across the organization is not always desired, although it may be desired in a decentralized
environment. Centralizing control of IT is not always desired. An example of where it might be desired is an enterprise
desiring a single point of customer contact.

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